最新(全国通用)2018-2019年高考英语仿真模拟试卷 (3)

2018高考仿真卷·英语(四)

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

(略)

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题; 每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

Don’t have plenty of time for reading?If you are interested in non-fiction books,here are good choices for you.

A Room of One’s Own

This essay by English writer Virginia Woolf is based on her several lectures given to two women’s colleges at Cambridge University in 1928.In it,Woolf describes that it’s circumstance not talent alone that allows men to be more successful at writing.Women,in other words,spend so much time cooking,cleaning,and tending to their children that they have no time left for art.To write well,therefore,a woman must have “a room of her own”.While on its surface,this essay appears to be only about writing,it is actually about wealth and class,freedom and imprisonment,and the power struggle between sexes.

The Art of War

Written by ancient Chinese military strategist Sun Zi,The Art of War is widely considered to be one of the best books about military strategy in human history.Consisting of 13 chapters,each dealing with a separate aspect about how to fight a war,the book has been translated into many languages and has thousands of editions.For centuries,it has been used to train military leaders for its detailed study of military strategy and effective leadership.

Letter to My Daughter

This book of essays and poems by Maya Angelou,a respectable American poet,is written for “the daughter she never had”— the millions of women,both young and old,who she considers to be her “family”.From the viewpoint of a caring,older relative,this book contains lessons selected from her own life experiences,including the birth of her only child,a son,as well as the development and loss of friendship.

A Brief History of Time

If you’re short on time,then why not read about,well,the creation of time?This book,first published in 1998 from brilliant scientist and mathematician Stephen Hawking,explores

mind-bending questions about the creation of the universe,including if and when it will end,and if so,how.Despite its heavy subject matter,Hawking addresses these questions in a way that’s easy to understand,even for those who know little about physics.

21.What can we learn about the four books?

A.A Brief History of Time mainly focuses on the matter of the earth.

B.Letter to My Daughter is actually a common family letter.

C.The Art of War gives definition of philosophy.

D.A Room of One’s Own is more than about writing.

22.What can be inferred from the passage?

A.As a physicist,Hawking is equally famous for writing.

B.Maya devotes herself to fighting for women’s rights.

C.The book by Sun Zi is helpful in policy-making.

D.Woolf looks down upon men in writing.

23.What is the purpose of the passage?

A.To make comparisons between the four books.

B.To recommend the four books to readers.

C.To make comments on the four books.

D.To promote sales of the four books.

B

Enjoying a musical performance no longer requires a costly ticket or a trip to a theater.These days,musicians are performing in private homes,at haircutting shops,at airports...even on ferry boats.

Musicians like house concerts.At music clubs,they often have to perform over loud conversation or deal with people who have had too much alcohol.People at house concerts are more focused on listening to the music.

Just a few hours before the Bombadils started singing at the O’ Hair Salon,Lindsay was cutting hair and Tamera was doing facials.Then,they moved chairs and microphones to create a small performance space.The Bombadils made music in the front part of the hair salon,near the hairdryers and make-up tables.

“This is our first show at a hair salon,” Sarah Frank of the Bombadils told concertgoers at last week’s performance.Frank said she and band members,Luke Fraser and Kaitlyn Raitz had a great time “interacting” with the audience.

Concerts in people’s homes,or small businesses such as O’ Hair’s,are becoming more popular,musicians say.“There is a more relaxed atmosphere,” said Domenic Cicala,a musician who opened up his O’ Hair Salon to concerts.“People really get to know the artists.”

At house concerts,people get time before and after concerts to meet the performers.Often,the hosts or guests will provide food and drink.

“People really like listening to music in the living room of a friend,” said Matt Hart,with Aubrey Zoli making up the Local Strangers,a folk-rock group based in Seattle.At many such concerts,the musicians do not need microphones.Yet,every word of their songs can be heard.

24.Why do musicians like house concerts?

A.Because private homes are easier to get to.

B.Because people pay more attention to their music.

C.Because they can do other things while performing.

D.Because they don’t have to bring their microphones.

25.What impressed Sarah Frank most at her last week’s performance?

A.The small performance space.

B.Her first show at a hair salon.

C.Their interaction with the audience.

D.The more relaxed atmosphere.

26.How many music groups are mentioned in the text?

A.One.

B.Two.

C.Three.

D.Four.

27.What may be the best title for the text?

A.Musicians Struggle to Make a Living

B.People Really Get to Know the Artists

C.Musicians Find New Places to Perform

D.Concertgoers Won’t Go to Music Clubs

C

“Hungary?” I looked at my school headmaster in confusion.“I never mentioned wanting to go to Hungary.” And with that,my adventure started.

My name is Jonathan Diamond and I just finished an amazing school exchange year in Hungary.

Going on an exchange had always been my dream.When my high school offered an all-year program,I jumped at the opportunity.It would pay for almost everything and all I had to do was buy a plane ticket.I knew where I wanted to go:Spain,the country of dancers wearing flowing red dresses.So when I heard that I was going to Hungary,I was pretty shocked.But I decided to make the best of it,since it was,after all,a once-in-a-lifetime opportunity.Before I knew it,I was on the airplane,leaving for Budapest Ferenc Liszt International Airport,Hungary.

I had difficult times when I almost gave up.Hungarian is the hardest language on the planet.Cultural differences occasionally embarrassed both my peers and me.I had to give up eating carrots,my beautiful favorite,for Hungarians think carrots are rubbish in their country.The change in the landscape was amazing,looking nothing like skyscrapers,bullet trains,cars,and people in tiny houses that I had been accustomed to.Gradually,I fell in love with the relaxing lifestyle,the

warm-hearted people,and getting home at 2:30 p.m.at the latest from school.And I was sad to leave on my very last day.

Having the host family who took me as one of their own members was the best thing I’ve ever experienced.From my little sisters,I learned how to embrace life to its fullest.From my brothers I learned that it’s OK for a boy to run around the house.From my host parents I learned to stay positive,to smile and that when you pick the right people and take their hands,suddenly,you become friends.

28.How did Jonathan feel when he was told to go to Hungary?

A.Excited and satisfied.

B.Confused and shocked.

C.Amazed and embarrassed.

D.Delighted and interested.

29.Why did Jonathan still decide to go to Hungary instead of Spain?

A.He didn’t like Spain.

B.He wanted to learn Hungarian.

C.It was a rare chance.

D.Going to Hungary was much cheaper.

30.What can we learn about Jonathan during his stay in Hungary?

A.He fell in love with eating carrots.

B.He couldn’t wait to leave.

C.He was surprised by the landscape.

D.He quickly got used to the life there.

31.According to Jonathan,the host family .

A.changed him completely

B.taught him how to dance well

C.treated him as equally as a student

D.showed him the good things of life

D

Some pigs tend to be optimistic while others are pessimistic,according to a new research that is meaningful to animal welfare.The study,published in the journal Biology Letters,is the first to show that mood and personality interact in an animal,influencing judgment.

Asher,a researcher at the University of Newcastle’s Institute of Neuroscience,and her team housed groups of pigs in two types of environment.One reflected standard commercial conditions and the other was cushier with more space and plenty of soft,deep straw.After the pigs got accustomed to these new homes over a few weeks,the researchers picked 18 pigs from each type to train and test their judgment.

“To do this,we trained each pig.In one corner of a training room there would be a bowl with chocolate sweets—pigs love them—and at the opposite side of the room there would be a bowl containing coffee beans,which pigs find bitter-tasting,” a researcher said.

Over a number of training trials,pigs learned to go to the bowl reliably when it was in the corner where they had figured out to expect chocolate sweets.On the contrary,they quickly learned to avoid the bowl when it was in the corner where they would expect to find the coffee beans.

The researchers next placed an unfamiliar bowl in different locations,to see how the pigs would react.Some gaily dashed to the bowl no matter what was inside,showing optimism that it would contain their favorite sweets.Others,however,behaved as though they expected it to contain coffee beans,displaying pessimism.

The findings suggest that a one-size-fits-all answer to animal welfare issues does not exist.Even if pigs are just equal to bacon or other meat for some people,there is still cause for concern.Studies have suggested that how an animal is treated during its lifetime can directly affect meat quality and taste.

32.What was the study trying to figure out?

A.How to make pigs happier.

B.The similarities between humans and pigs.

C.How living environment affected pigs’ mood.

D.How pigs’ mood and personality affected their judgment.

33.What does the underlined word “cushier” in Paragraph 2 mean?

A.Simple.

B.More comfortable.

C.Unpractical.

D.Less free.

34.Which bowl can test whether a pig is optimistic or pessimistic?

A.The bowl with chocolate sweets.

B.The bowl containing coffee beans.

C.The bowl full of both sweets and beans.

D.The bowl unfamiliar to two types of pigs.

35.What do the findings of the new research imply?

A.People should treat pigs equally.

B.People’s health relies on meat quality.

C.People should meet pigs’ various needs.

D.People’s attitude toward pigs is totally wrong.

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Traveling alone gives you the freedom to create your own schedule and do as you please.

36For example,a travel partner can provide practical support and share in the rewards of

first-hand experience with unfamiliar locations and cultures.Here are several tips to find a travel partner who will improve your journey.

37Traveling should be fun.When you are on a trip,you will want to do lots of activities that you enjoy.Preferably,your companion will want to do the same things as you.

Discuss financial plans.Before you travel,you should plan a budget.38You don’t want to be planning an expensive getaway at the same time your friend is looking for budget travel.

Have an honest conversation.If you are thinking about traveling with a companion,take some time to have an open discussion.Schedule a time to sit down and talk.Try saying,“I know we’ve talked about the idea of traveling through Europe together.Let’s have a coffee this week and actually talk that through.”39You should also talk about your travel style.

Find someone who is flexible.Choose a travel partner who can adjust.40Maybe it will rain on the day you planned to visit the Grand Canyon.Or you might not be able to get reservations at that French restaurant you’ve been dying to try.

A.Look for someone with common interests.

B.You should discuss your goals for the trip.

C.Travel with a friend who is pretty easygoing.

D.But traveling with a partner has its benefits,too.

E.Make sure that you are on the same page concerning money.

F.Try to meet your new travel partner in person before your trip.

G.No matter how carefully you plan your trip,it is likely that something will go wrong.

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节(共20小题;每题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

From childhood,Moira loved to write.Throughout school she 41writing,but pursuing (追求) it 42was never a possibility.Her father was a doctor,her mother a nurse,“Medicine was a fairly 43choice,” Moira says,“and writing was a career where it wasn’t a 44

that you’d have high income.”

She became a doctor but still wanted to write something.However,being a doctor was so

45that she didn’t take up writing until her thirties.She 46 a novel — a fictionalized version of her travel in China after university.She got excellent 47.Moira sent it off to as many agents as she could find,and found one who wanted to 48her.Suddenly,it seemed she was on her 49as an author.

“I had one lengthy phone call with the agent where we 50all possible areas that she thought needed 51I worked on those and sent it back to her but didn’t hear anything.” It wasn’t long 52Moira found another agent who was 53if she was willing to rewrite it from the first person to the third person.She did the hard work and sent it off again.“I got back a really brief letter:‘Thank you,I’m no longer interested.’ It was really 54.”

2019年春季高考英语模拟试题及答案

第I卷（选择题，共50分） 注意事项： 1.答第I卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、考试科目用铅笔涂写在答题卡上 2.每小题选出答案后，用铅笔把小答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案，不能答在试题卷上。 一、英语知识运用（本题共30个小题，每小题1分，共30分。在每小题列出的四个选项中，只有一项符合题目要求，请将符合题目要求的选项选出） 1.–Excuse me.Is the department store far from your school? –Not very.It’s about_______. A.10minutes walk B.10minutes’walk C.10minutes’s walk D.10minute’s walk 2.–May I use_______mobile phone? –Sorry,_______is left in the office. A.you;I B.your;my C.yours;mine D.your;mine 3.My father was born_______.When he was_______,he went abroad. A.in1970;in his thirty B.in the1970s;in his thirties C.in the1970;in his thirty D.in1970s;in his thirties 4.–I think students can have cell phones to help with their studying. –_______.They often use them to play games instead of studying. A.I’m afraid so B.All right C.You are right D.I don’t think so 5.–Why do you like using? –Because it can help me keep_______touch with my friends. A.on B.for C.at D.in 6.You must_______at the airport an hour before your plane takes off. A.check up B.check in C.check out D.check 7.–I can’t walk any further. –_______.Let’s stop here for a rest. A.Neither can I B.So can I C.Neither I can D.So I can 8.______she is,the higher marks she will get. A.The more careful B.The more carefully C.The much careful D.The careful 9.–You are not a new member,are you? –_______.I joined only yesterday. A.No,I’m not. B.Yes,I’m not. C.No,I am. D.Yes,I am. 10.This is the only dictionary______I brought back from abroad. A.which B.that C.whose D.what 11._______of the students in our class______girls. A.Two third,are B.Two thirds,is C.Two third,is D.Two thirds,are 12.–Could you take care of our dog while we are away? –_______. A.With pleasure B.It’s my pleasure C.Never mind D.That’s all right 13.–What about having a drink? –________ A.Good idea. B.I don’t want to. C.Help yourself. D.Me,too. 14.–Do you get someone_______your clothes? –Yes,I often have them_______. A.wash,washed B.washed,wash C.washing,wash D.to wash,washed 15.–I’m going to a job interview.I feel a little________. –Take it easy.Listening to music can help you relax. https://www.wendangku.net/doc/51591270.html,fortable B.satisfied C.nervous D.disappointed 16.We should turn off the lights when we leave the room_______we can save electricity. A.in order to B.so as to C.such that D.so that 17._______lovely weather it is!Shall we go for a walk? A.What B.What a C.How D.How a 18.Twenty minutes______not enough for you to finish it. A.were B.is C.are D.has 共8页第1页共8页第2页

2021高考英语模拟试卷-最新(全)

高考英语模拟试卷-最新 第一部分：英语知识运用 第一节：单项填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）1.—Tony , do remember to sent the report to the sales manager! --____. A. make it B. got it C. heard it D. followed it 2. She is quite ____ to office work .You had better offer her some suggestions when necessary. A. familiar B. similar C. fresh D. sensitive 3. We'd better take umbrellas –I'm sure it ____ when we arrive in London ; it's always wet there at this time of year . A. will rain B. is raining C. will be raining D. would rain 4.—Fiona never fails to grasp any chance of promotion . --She is a woman of ____. A. ambition B. attention C. expectation D. reputation 5.____ terrible ,the medicine was thrown away by the child .

A. tasted B. tasting C. to taste D. being tasted 6.—Ken ,____ , but your radio is going too loud --Oh, I'm sorry . I 'll turn it down right now . A. I hate to say it B. it doesn't hurt to ask C. I'm really sited of it D. I 'm crazy about it 7.This book is said to be the special one ,which ____ many events tha t cannot be found in other history books . A. covers B. writes C. prints D. reads 8.—Next week I will go to a job interview . Will you give me some suggestions . --Smiling is a great way to make yourself ____. A. stand out B. turn out C. work out D. pick out 9.—What's wrong with you ? --Oh, I am sick . I ____ so much ice cream just now . A. shouldn't eat B. mustn't eat C. couldn't eat D. shouldn't have eaten 10.—Mum, is the pair of gloves ____ mine ? -- Yes, You have to wear another pair .

(完整word版)2018年高考英语全国1卷及答案.doc

绝密★启用前 2018 年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 (Ⅰ卷 ) 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30 分） 第一节（共5小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分7.5 分） 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A 、 B 、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。 每段对话仅读一遍。例：How much is the shirt? A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.18. C. ￡9.15. 答案是 C。 1. What will James do tomorrow? A. Watch a TV program B. Give a talk. C. Write a report. 2. What can we say about the woman? A. She’s generous. B. She’s curious C. She’s helpful. 3. When does the train leave? A. At 6:30. B. At 8:30. C. At 10:30. 4. How does the woman go to work? A. By car. B. On foot. C. By bike. 5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers? A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student C. Doctor and patient. 第二节（共15小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分） 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、 B 、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第 6 段材料，回答第6、7 题。 6. W hat does the woman regret? A. Giving up her research. B. Dropping out of college. C. Changing her major. 7. W hat is the woman interested in studying now? A. Ecology. B. Education. C. Chemistry. 听第 7 段材料，回答第8、9 题。 8. W hat is the man? A. A hotel manager. B. A tour guide. C. A taxi driver. 9.What is the man doing for the woman? A. Looking for some local foods. B. Showing her around the seaside. C. Offering information about a hotel. 听第 8 段材料，回答第10 至 12 题。 10. Where does the conversation probably take place? A. In an office. B. At home. C. At a restaurant. 11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening? A. Go to a concert. B. Visit a friend. C. Work extra hours. 12. Who is Alice going to call? A. Mike. B. Joan. C. Catherine. 听第 9 段材料，回答第13 至 16 题。 13. Why does the woman meet the man? A. To look at an apartment. B. To deliver some furniture. C. To have a meal together. 14. What does the woman like about the carpet? A. Its color. B. Its design. C. Its quality. 15. What does the man say about the kitchen? A. It ’s a good size. B. It ’s newly painted. C.It ’s equately equipped. 16. What will the woman probably do next? A. Go downtown. B. Talk with her friend. C. Make payment. 听第 10 段材料，回答第17 至 20 题。 17. Who is the speaker probably talking to? A. Movie fans. B. News reporters. C. College students. 18. When did the speaker take English classes? A. Before he left his hometown. BAter he came to America C. When he was 15 years old. 19. How does the speaker feel about his teacher? A. He ’s proud. B. He’s sympathetic. C. He’s grateful. 20.What does the speaker mainly talk about? A. How education shaped his life. B. How his language skills improved. C. How he managed his business well. 第二部分阅读理解（共两节，满分40 分） 第一节（共15小题；每小题 2 分，满分 30 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A 、B、 C 和 D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability –and the cherry blossoms –disappear! Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (4 miles) Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mall as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. Duration: 3 hours Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth tour route (路线) make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour Duration: 3 hours (7 miles) Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights. 21.Which tour do you need to book in advance? A.Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. B.Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour. C.Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C. D.Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour. 22.What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour? A. Meet famous people. B. Go to a national park. C. Visit well-known museums. D. Enjoy interesting stories. 23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide? A. City maps. B. Cameras C. Meals. D. Safety lights. B Good Morning Britain ’ Susanna Reid is used to morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget. In Save Money: Good Food , she visits a different h chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food w under￡5per family a day. And the Good Morning Brit put a lot of what she’ s learnt into practice in her Finn, 13, and Jack, 11. “ Welove Mexican churros, so I buy them on m takeaway restaurant,” she explains.“ I payo 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and but sometimes we’ re not aware how cheaply we ca The eight-part series ( 系列节目 ), Save Money: Go ITV ’ sSave Money: Good Health , which gave viewers vast range of health products on the market. With food our biggest weekly household expense, S different family each week. In tonight’ s Easte of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team tran celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes. 24. What do we know about Susanna Reid? A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests. C. She dislikes working early in the morning. D. She 25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna? A. He buys cooking materials for her. C. He assists her in cooking matters. 26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph 4? A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.B C. Add some background information. D. 27. What can be a suitable title for the text? A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef C Languages have been coming and going for thous has been less coming and a lot more going. When th gatherers, small, tightly knit ( 联系) groups deve independent of each other. Some language experts be world had just five to ten million people, they spoke perh Soon afterwards, many of those people started set languages too became more settled and fewer in numbe industrialisation, the development of the nation-state and education, especially globalisation and better communic have caused many languages to disappear, and domina and Chinese are increasingly taking over. At present, the world has about 6,800 languages. T hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spok around 200 languages; the Americas about 1,000; Africa 3,200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for w 数 ) of speakers is a mere 6,000, which means that half fewer people than that. Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 language only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuu speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache i Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark): none o survival. 28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gather A. They developed very fast.

2019高考英语模拟题题型冲刺配套短文改错 5套

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