Answer Explanations SAT? Practice Test #1
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Answer Explanations
SAT Practice Test #1
Section 1: Reading T est
QUESTION 1.
Choice B is the best answer. In the passage, a young man (Akira) asks a
mother (Chie) for permission to marry her daughter (Naomi). The request
was certainly surprising to the mother, as can be seen from line 47, which
states that prior to Akira’s question Chie “had no idea” the request was coming.
Choice A is incorrect because the passage depicts two characters engaged
in a civil conversation, with Chie being impressed with Akira’s “sincerity”
and finding herself “starting to like him.” Choice C is incorrect because
the passage is focused on the idea of Akira’s and Naomi’s present lives and
possible futures. Choice D is incorrect because the interactions between
Chie and Akira are polite, not critical; for example, Chie views Akira with
“amusement,” not animosity.
QUESTION 2.
Choice B is the best answer. The passage centers on a night when a young
man tries to get approval to marry a woman’s daughter. The passage includes
detailed descriptions of setting (a “winter’s eve” and a “cold rain,” lines 5-6);
character (Akira’s “soft, refined” voice, line 33; Akira’s eyes “sh[ining] with
sincerity,” line 35); and plot (“Naomi was silent. She stood a full half minute
looking straight into Chie’s eyes. Finally, she spoke,” lines 88-89).
Choice A is incorrect because the passage focuses on a nontraditional mar-
riage proposal. Choice C is incorrect because the passage concludes without
resolution to the question of whether Akira and Naomi will receive permis-
sion to marry. Choice D is incorrect because the passage repeatedly makes
clear that for Chie, her encounter with Akira is momentous and unsettling,
as when Akira acknowledges in line 73 that he has “startled” her.
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QUESTION 3.
Choice C is the best answer. Akira “came directly, breaking all tradition,”
(line 1) when he approached Chie and asked to marry her daughter, and he
“ask[ed] directly,” without “a go-between” (line 65) or “mediation,” because
doing otherwise would have taken too much time.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in these contexts, “directly” does
not mean in a frank, confident, or precise manner.
QUESTION 4.
Choice A is the best answer. Akira is very concerned Chie will find his mar-
riage proposal inappropriate because he did not follow traditional protocol and
use a “go-between” (line 65). This is clear in lines 63-64, when Akira says to
Chie “Please don’t judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal.”
Choice B is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that Akira
worries that Chie will mistake his earnestness for immaturity. Choice C is incor-
rect because while Akira recognizes that his unscheduled visit is a nuisance, his
larger concern is that Chie will reject him due to the inappropriateness of his
proposal. Choice D is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that
Akira worries Chie will underestimate the sincerity of his emotions.
QUESTION 5.
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 63-64, Akira says to Chie, “Please
don’t judge my candidacy by the unseemliness of this proposal.” This reveals
Akira’s concern that Chie may say no to the proposal simply because Akira
did not follow traditional practices.
Choices A, B, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choice A is incorrect because line 33 merely describes
Akira’s voice as “soft, refined.” Choice B is incorrect because lines 49-51
reflect Chie’s perspective, not Akira’s. Choice D is incorrect because lines
71-72 indicate only that Akira was speaking in an eager and forthright matter.
QUESTION 6.
Choice D is the best answer because Akira clearly treats Chie with respect,
including “bow[ing]” (line 26) to her, calling her “Madame” (line 31), and
looking at her with “a deferential peek” (line 34). Akira does not offer Chie
utter deference, though, as he asks to marry Naomi after he concedes that he
is not following protocol and admits to being a “disruption” (line 31).
Choice A is incorrect because while Akira conveys respect to Chie, there is
no evidence in the passage that he feels affection for her. Choice B is incor-
rect because neither objectivity nor impartiality accurately describes how
Akira addresses Chie. Choice C is incorrect because Akira conveys respect
to Chie and takes the conversation seriously.
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QUESTION 7.
Choice D is the best answer. The first paragraph (lines 1-4) reflects on how
Akira approached Chie to ask for her daughter’s hand in marriage. In these
lines, the narrator is wondering whether Chie would have been more likely
to say yes to Akira’s proposal if Akira had followed tradition: “Akira came
directly, breaking all tradition. Was that it? Had he followed form—had he
asked his mother to speak to his father to approach a go-between—would
Chie have been more receptive?” Thus, the main purpose of the first para-
graph is to examine why Chie reacted a certain way to Akira’s proposal.
Choice A is incorrect because the first paragraph describes only one aspect of
Japanese culture (marriage proposals) but not the culture as a whole. Choice B
is incorrect because the first paragraph implies a criticism of Akira’s individual
marriage proposal but not the entire tradition of Japanese marriage proposals.
Choice C is incorrect because the narrator does not question a suggestion.
QUESTION 8.
Choice B is the best answer. In line 1, the narrator suggests that Akira’s
direct approach broke “all tradition.” The narrator then wonders if Akira had
“followed form,” or the tradition expected of him, would Chie have been
more receptive to his proposal. In this context, following “form” thus means
following a certain tradition or custom.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context “form” does not
mean the way something looks (appearance), the way it is built (structure),
or its essence (nature).
QUESTION 9.
Choice C is the best answer. Akira states that his unexpected meeting with
Chie occurred only because of a “matter of urgency,” which he explains as “an
opportunity to go to America, as dentist for Seattle’s Japanese community”
(lines 41-42). Akira decides to directly speak to Chie because Chie’s response
to his marriage proposal affects whether Akira accepts the job offer.
Choice A is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that Akira is
worried his parents will not approve of Naomi. Choice B is incorrect because
Akira has “an understanding” with Naomi (line 63). Choice D is incorrect;
while Akira may know that Chie is unaware of his feelings for Naomi, this is
not what he is referring to when he mentions “a matter of urgency.”
QUESTION 10.
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 39-42, Akira clarifies that the “mat-
ter of urgency” is that he has “an opportunity to go to America, as dentist
for Seattle’s Japanese community.” Akira needs Chie’s answer to his marriage
proposal so he can decide whether to accept the job in Seattle.
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Choices A, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choice A is incorrect because in line 39 Akira apologizes
for interrupting Chie’s quiet evening. Choice C is incorrect because lines
58-59 address the seriousness of Akira’s request, not its urgency. Choice D
is incorrect because line 73 shows only that Akira’s proposal has “startled”
Chie and does not explain why his request is time-sensitive.
QUESTION 11.
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 1-9 include examples of how many
people shop (“millions of shoppers”), how much money they spend (“over
$30 billion at retail stores in the month of December alone”), and the many
occasions that lead to shopping for gifts (“including weddings, birthdays,
anniversaries, graduations, and baby showers.”). Combined, these examples
show how frequently people in the US shop for gifts.
Choice B is incorrect because even though the authors mention that
“$30 billion” had been spent in retail stores in one month, that figure is
never discussed as an increase (or a decrease). Choice C is incorrect because
lines 1-9 provide a context for the amount of shopping that occurs in the US,
but the anxiety (or “dread”) it might cause is not introduced until later in the
passage. Choice D is incorrect because lines 1-9 do more than highlight the
number of different occasions that lead to gift-giving.
QUESTION 12.
Choice B is the best answer. Lines 9-10 state “This frequent experience
of gift-giving can engender ambivalent feelings in gift-givers.” In the sub-
sequent sentences, those “ambivalent” feelings are further exemplified as
conflicted feelings, as shopping is said to be something that “[m]any relish”
(lines 10-11) and “many dread” (line 14).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “ambivalent” does
not mean feelings that are unrealistic, apprehensive, or supportive.
QUESTION 13.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 10-13, the authors clearly state that
some people believe gift-giving can help a relationship because it “offers a
powerful means to build stronger bonds with one’s closest peers.”
Choice A is incorrect because even though the authors state that some
shoppers make their choices based on “egocentrism,” (line 33) there is
no evidence in the passage that people view shopping as a form of self-
expression. Choice B is incorrect because the passage implies that shopping
is an expensive habit. Choice C is incorrect because the passage states that
most people have purchased and received gifts, but it never implies that peo-
ple are required to reciprocate the gift-giving process.
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QUESTION 14.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 10-13, the authors suggest that people
value gift-giving because it may strengthen their relationships with others:
“Many relish the opportunity to buy presents because gift-giving offers a
powerful means to build stronger bonds with one’s closest peers.”
Choices B, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choice B is incorrect because lines 22-23 discuss how
people often buy gifts that the recipients would not purchase. Choice C is
incorrect because lines 31-32 explain how gift-givers often fail to consider
the recipients’ preferences. Choice D is incorrect because lines 44-47 suggest
that the cost of a gift may not correlate to a recipient’s appreciation of it.
QUESTION 15.
Choice A is the best answer. The “deadweight loss” mentioned in the second
paragraph is the significant monetary difference between what a gift-giver
would pay for something and what a gift-recipient would pay for the same
item. That difference would be predictable to social psychologists, whose
research “has found that people often struggle to take account of others’
perspectives—their insights are subject to egocentrism, social projection,
and multiple attribution errors” (lines 31-34).
Choices B, C, and D are all incorrect because lines 31-34 make clear that
social psychologists would expect a disconnect between gift-givers and gift-
recipients, not that they would question it, be disturbed by it, or find it sur-
prising or unprecedented.
QUESTION 16.
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 41-44 suggest that gift-givers assume
a correlation between the cost of a gift and how well-received it will be:
“. . . gift-givers equate how much they spend with how much recipients will
appreciate the gift (the more expensive the gift, the stronger a gift-recipient’s
feelings of appreciation).” However, the authors suggest this assumption may
be incorrect or “unfounded” (line 47), as gift-recipients “may not construe
smaller and larger gifts as representing smaller and larger signals of thought-
fulness and consideration” (lines 63-65).
Choices A, B, and D are all incorrect because the passage neither states
nor implies that the gift-givers’ assumption is insincere, unreasonable, or
substantiated.
QUESTION 17.
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 63-65 suggest that the assumption made
by gift-givers in lines 41-44 may be incorrect. The gift-givers assume that
recipients will have a greater appreciation for costly gifts than for less costly
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gifts, but the authors suggest this relationship may be incorrect, as gift-
recipients “may not construe smaller and larger gifts as representing smaller
and larger signals of thoughtfulness and consideration” (lines 63-65).
Choices A and D are incorrect because lines 53-55 and 75-78 address the
question of “why” gift-givers make specific assumptions rather than address-
ing the validity of these assumptions. Choice B is incorrect because lines
55-60 focus on the reasons people give gifts to others.
QUESTION 18.
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 53-55 state that “Perhaps givers believe
that bigger (i.e., more expensive) gifts convey stronger signals of thought-
fulness and consideration.” In this context, saying that more expensive gifts
“convey” stronger signals means the gifts send, or communicate, stronger
signals to the recipients.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, to “convey” some-
thing does not mean to transport it (physically move something), coun-
teract it (act in opposition to something), or exchange it (trade one thing
for another).
QUESTION 19.
Choice A is the best answer. The paragraph examines how gift-givers
believe expensive gifts are more thoughtful than less expensive gifts and
will be more valued by recipients. The work of Camerer and others offers
an explanation for the gift-givers’ reasoning: “gift-givers attempt to signal
their positive attitudes toward the intended recipient and their willingness to
invest resources in a future relationship” (lines 57-60).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the theory articulated by Camerer
and others is used to explain an idea put forward by the authors (“givers
believe that bigger . . . gifts convey stronger signals”), not to introduce an
argument, question a motive, or support a conclusion.
QUESTION 20.
Choice B is the best answer. The graph clearly shows that gift-givers believe
that a “more valuable” gift will be more appreciated than a “less valuable
gift.” According to the graph, gift-givers believe the monetary value of a gift
will determine whether that gift is well received or not.
Choice A is incorrect because the graph does not suggest that gift-givers are
aware of gift-recipients’ appreciation levels. Choices C and D are incorrect
because neither the gift-givers’ desire for the gifts they purchase nor the gift-
givers’ relationship with the gift-recipients is addressed in the graph.
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QUESTION 21.
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 69-75 explain that while people are often
both gift-givers and gift-receivers, they struggle to apply information they
learned as a gift-giver to a time when they were a gift-receiver: “Y et, despite the
extensive experience that people have as both givers and receivers, they often
struggle to transfer information gained from one role (e.g., as a giver) and
apply it in another, complementary role (e.g., as a receiver).” The authors sug-
gest that the disconnect between how much appreciation a gift-giver thinks a
gift merits and how much appreciation a gift-recipient displays for the gift may
be caused by both individuals’ inability to comprehend the other’s perspective.
Choices B and C are incorrect because neither the passage nor the graph
addresses the idea that society has become more materialistic or that there is
a growing opposition to gift-giving. Choice D is incorrect because the pas-
sage emphasizes that gift-givers and gift-recipients fail to understand each
other’s perspective, but it offers no evidence that the disconnect results only
from a failure to understand the other’s intentions.
QUESTION 22.
Choice B is the best answer. Lines 2-4 of the passage describe DNA as
“a very long chain, the backbone of which consists of a regular alternation of
sugar and phosphate groups.” The backbone of DNA, in other words, is the
main structure of a chain made up of repeating units of sugar and phosphate.
Choice A is incorrect because the passage describes DNA on the molecular
level only and never mentions the spinal column of organisms. Choice C is
incorrect because the passage describes the backbone of the molecule as
having “a regular alternation” of sugar and phosphate, not one or the other.
Choice D is incorrect because the nitrogenous bases are not the main struc-
tural unit of DNA; rather, they are attached only to the repeating units of sugar.
QUESTION 23.
Choice D is the best answer. The authors explain that hydrogen bonds join
together pairs of nitrogenous bases, and that these bases have a specific
structure that leads to the pairing: “One member of a pair must be a purine
and the other a pyrimidine in order to bridge between the two chains” (lines
27-29). Given the specific chemical properties of a nitrogenous base, it
would be inaccurate to call the process random.
Choice A is incorrect because lines 5-6 describe how nitrogenous bases
attach to sugar but not how those bases pair with one another. Choice B is
incorrect because lines 9-10 do not contradict the student’s claim. Choice C
is incorrect because lines 23-25 describe how the two molecules’ chains are
linked, not what the specific pairing between nitrogenous bases is.
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QUESTION 24.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 12-14 the authors state: “the first fea-
ture of our structure which is of biological interest is that it consists not of
one chain, but of two.”
Choices A and B are incorrect because lines 12-14 explicitly state that it is
the two chains of DNA that are of “biological interest,” not the chemical
formula of DNA, nor the common fiber axis those two chains are wrapped
around. Choice C is incorrect because, while the X-ray evidence did help
Watson and Crick to discover that DNA consists of two chains, it was not
claimed to be the feature of biological interest.
QUESTION 25.
Choice C is the best answer. In lines 12-14 the authors claim that DNA mol-
ecules appear to be comprised of two chains, even though “it has often been
assumed . . . there would be only one” (lines 15-17). The authors support this
claim with evidence compiled from an X-ray: “the density, taken with the X-ray
evidence, suggests very strongly that there are two [chains]” (lines 18-19).
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the authors mention density and
X-ray evidence to support a claim, not to establish that DNA carries genetic
information, present a hypothesis about the composition of a nucleotide, or
confirm a relationship between the density and chemical formula of DNA.
QUESTION 26.
Choice B is the best answer. The authors explain that “only certain pairs of
bases will fit into the structure” (lines 25-26) of the DNA molecule. These
pairs must contain “a purine and the other a pyrimidine in order to bridge
between the two chains” (lines 27-29), which implies that any other pairing
would not “fit into the structure” of the DNA molecule. Therefore, a pair
of purines would be larger than the required purine/pyrimidine pair and
would not fit into the structure of the DNA molecule.
Choice A is incorrect because this section is not discussing the distance
between a sugar and phosphate group. Choice C is incorrect because the
passage never makes clear the size of the pyrimidines or purines in relation
to each other, only in relation to the space needed to bond the chains of
the DNA molecule. Choice D is incorrect because the lines do not make an
implication about the size of a pair of pyrimidines in relation to the size of a
pair consisting of a purine and a pyrimidine.
QUESTION 27.
Choice D is the best answer. The authors explain how the DNA molecule
contains a “precise sequence of bases” (lines 43-44), and that the authors can
use the order of bases on one chain to determine the order of bases on the
other chain: “If the actual order of the bases on one of the pair of chains were
8
given, one could write down the exact order of the bases on the other one,
because of the specific pairing. Thus one chain is, as it were, the comple-
ment of the other, and it is this feature which suggests how the deoxyribo-
nucleic acid molecule might duplicate itself” (lines 45-51). The authors use
the words “exact,” “specific,” and “complement” in these lines to suggest that
the base pairings along a DNA chain is understood and predictable, and may
explain how DNA “duplicate[s] itself” (line 51).
Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that most nucle-
otide sequences are known. Choice B is incorrect because these lines are not
discussing the random nature of the base sequence along one chain of DNA.
Choice C is incorrect because the authors are describing the bases attached
only to the sugar, not to the sugar-phosphate backbone.
QUESTION 28.
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 6-7 state that “Two of the possible bases—
adenine and guanine—are purines,” and on the table the percentages of ade-
nine and guanine in yeast DNA are listed as 31.3% and 18.7% respectively.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not state the percentages
of both purines, adenine and guanine, in yeast DNA.
QUESTION 29.
Choice A is the best answer. The authors state: “We believe that the bases
will be present almost entirely in their most probable forms. If this is true,
the conditions for forming hydrogen bonds are more restrictive, and the only
pairs of bases possible are: adenine with thymine, and guanine with cytosine”
(lines 31-35). The table shows that the pairs adenine/thymine and guanine/
cytosine have notably similar percentages in DNA for all organisms listed.
Choice B is incorrect. Although the choice of “Yes” is correct, the explana-
tion for that choice misrepresents the data in the table. Choices C and D are
incorrect because the table does support the authors’ proposed pairing of
nitrogenous bases in DNA molecules.
QUESTION 30.
Choice A is the best answer because it gives the percentage of cytosine
(17.3%) in sea urchin DNA and the percentage of guanine (17.7%) in sea
urchin DNA. Their near similar pairing supports the authors’ proposal that
possible pairings of nitrogenous bases are “adenine with thymine, and gua-
nine with cytosine” (line 35).
Choices B, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choice B (cytosine and thymine), Choice C (cytosine and
adenine), and Choice D (guanine and adenine) are incorrect because they
show pairings of nitrogenous bases that do not compose a similar percent-
age of the bases in sea urchin DNA.
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QUESTION 31.
Choice D is the best answer. The table clearly shows that the percentage of ade-
nine in each organism’s DNA is different, ranging from 24.7% in E.coli to 33.2%
in the octopus. That such a variability would exist is predicted in lines 41-43,
which states that “in a long molecule many different permutations are possible.”
Choices A and B are incorrect because the table shows that the percentage of
adenine varies between 24.7% and 33.2% in different organisms. Choice C is
incorrect because lines 36-38 state that adenine pairs with thymine but does
not mention the variability of the base composition of DNA.
QUESTION 32.
Choice B is the best answer. In this passage, Woolf asks women a series of
questions. Woolf wants women to consider joining “the procession of edu-
cated men” (lines 56-57) by becoming members of the workforce. Woolf
stresses that this issue is urgent, as women “have very little time in which to
answer [these questions]” (lines 48-49).
Choice A is incorrect because Woolf argues against the tradition of only
“the sons of educated men” (lines 82-83) joining the workforce. Choice C is
incorrect because Woolf is not highlighting the severity of social divisions
as much as she is explaining how those divisions might be reduced (with
women joining the workforce). Choice D is incorrect because Woolf does
not question the feasibility of changing the workforce dynamic.
QUESTION 33.
Choice A is the best answer. Throughout the passage, Woolf advocates for
more women to engage with existing institutions by joining the workforce:
“We too can leave the house, can mount those steps [to an office], pass in
and out of those doors, . . . make money, administer justice . . .” (lines 30-32).
Woolf tells educated women that they are at a “moment of transition” (line 51)
where they must consider their future role in the workforce.
Choice B is incorrect because even though Woolf mentions women’s tradi-
tional roles (lines 68-69: “while they stirred the pot, while they rocked the
cradle”), she does not suggest that women will have to give up these traditional
roles to gain positions of influence. Choice C is incorrect because though
Woolf wonders how “the procession of the sons of educated men” impacts
women’s roles, she does not argue that this male-dominated society has had
grave and continuing effects. Choice D is incorrect because while Woolf sug-
gests educated women can hold positions currently held by men, she does not
suggest that women’s entry into positions of power will change those positions.
QUESTION 34.
Choice C is the best answer. Woolf uses the word “we” to refer to herself
and educated women in English society, the “daughters of educated men”
10
(line 64). Woolf wants these women to consider participating in a chang-
ing workforce: “For there, trapesing along at the tail end of the procession
[to and from work], we go ourselves” (lines 23-24). In using the word “we”
throughout the passage, Woolf establishes a sense of solidarity among edu-
cated women.
Choice A is incorrect because Woolf does not use “we” to reflect on whether
people in a group are friendly to one another; she is concerned with generat-
ing solidarity among women. Choice B is incorrect because though Woolf
admits women have predominantly “done their thinking” within traditional
female roles (lines 64-69), she does not use “we” to advocate for more can-
dor among women. Choice D is incorrect because Woolf does not use “we”
to emphasize a need for people in a group to respect one other; rather, she
wants to establish a sense of solidarity among women.
QUESTION 35.
Choice B is the best answer. Woolf argues that the “bridge over the River
Thames, [has] an admirable vantage ground for us to make a survey” (lines 1-3).
The phrase “make a survey” means to carefully examine an event or activity.
Woolf wants educated women to “fix [their] eyes upon the procession—the
procession of the sons of educated men” (lines 9-11) walking to work.
Choice A is incorrect because while Woolf states the bridge “is a place to
stand on by the hour dreaming,” she states that she is using the bridge “to
consider the facts” (lines 6-9). Woolf is not using the bridge for fanciful
reflection; she is analyzing “the procession of the sons of educated men”
(lines 10-11). Choice C is incorrect because Woolf does not compare the
bridge to historic episodes. Choice D is incorrect because Woolf does not
suggest that the bridge is a symbol of a male-dominated past, but rather that
it serves as a good place to watch men proceed to work.
QUESTION 36.
Choice D is the best answer. Woolf writes that the men who conduct the
affairs of the nation (lines 15-17: “ascending those pulpits, preaching, teach-
ing, administering justice, practising medicine, transacting business, mak-
ing money”) are the same men who go to and from work in a “procession”
(line 10). Woolf notes that women are joining this procession, an act that
suggests the workforce has become less exclusionary: “For there, trapesing
along at the tail end of the procession, we go ourselves” (lines 23-24).
Choice A is incorrect because the procession is described as “a solemn sight
always” (lines 17-18), which indicates that it has always been influential.
Choice B is incorrect because the passage does not indicate that this proces-
sion has become a celebrated feature of English life. Choice C is incorrect
because the passage states only that the procession is made up of “the sons of
educated men” (lines 10-11).
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QUESTION 37.
Choice C is the best answer, as lines 23-24 suggest that the workforce has
become less exclusionary. In these lines Woolf describes how women are
joining the male-dominated procession that travels to and from the work
place: “For there, trapesing along at the tail end of the procession, we go
ourselves.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi-
dence for the answer to the previous question. Choice A is incorrect because
lines 12-17 describe the positions predominantly held by men. Choice B is
incorrect because lines 17-19 use a metaphor to describe how the proces-
sion physically looks. Choice D is incorrect because lines 30-34 hypothesize
about future jobs for women.
QUESTION 38.
Choice C is the best answer. Woolf characterizes the questions she asks in
lines 53-57 as significant (“so important that they may well change the lives
of all men and women for ever,” lines 52-53) and urgent (“we have very little
time in which to answer them,” lines 48-49). Therefore, Woolf considers the
questions posed in lines 53-57 as both momentous (significant) and press-
ing (urgent).
Choice A is incorrect because Woolf characterizes the questions as urgent
and important, not as something that would cause controversy or fear.
Choice B is incorrect because though Woolf considers the questions to be
weighty (or “important”), she implies that they can be answered. Choice D
is incorrect because Woolf does not imply that the questions are mysterious.
QUESTION 39.
Choice B is the best answer. The answer to the previous question shows
how Woolf characterizes the questions posed in lines 53-57 as momentous
and pressing. In lines 48-49, Woolf describes these questions as “important,”
or momentous, and states that women “have very little time in which to
answer them,” which shows their urgency.
Choices A, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to the
previous question. Choices A and D are incorrect because lines 46-47 and
line 62 suggest that women need to think about these questions and not offer
trivial objections to them. Choice C is incorrect because line 57 character-
izes only the need for urgency and does not mention the significance of the
questions.
QUESTION 40.
Choice C is the best answer. Woolf writes that women “have thought”
while performing traditional roles such as cooking and caring for children
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(lines 67-69). Woolf argues that this “thought” has shifted women’s roles in
society and earned them a “brand-new sixpence” that they need to learn how
to “spend” (lines 70-71). The “sixpence” mentioned in these lines is not a literal
coin. Woolf is using the “sixpence” as a metaphor, as she is suggesting women
take advantage of the opportunity to join the male-dominated workforce.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in this context, “sixpence” does
not refer to tolerance, knowledge, or perspective.
QUESTION 41.
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 72-76, Woolf repeats the phrase “let
us think” to emphasize how important it is for women to critically reflect on
their role in society. Woolf states this reflection can occur at any time: “Let
us think in offices; in omnibuses; while we are standing in the crowd watch-
ing Coronations and Lord Mayor’s Shows; let us think . . . in the gallery of
the House of Commons; in the Law Courts; let us think at baptisms and
marriages and funerals.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in lines 72-76 Woolf is not empha-
sizing the novelty of the challenge faced by women, the complexity of social
and political issues, or the enjoyable aspect of women’s career possibilities.
QUESTION 42.
Choice B is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 identifies specific
companies such as the “Planetary Resources of Washington,” “Deep Space
Industries of Virginia,” and “Golden Spike of Colorado” to support his ear-
lier assertion that there are many interested groups “working to make space
mining a reality” (line 8).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the author of Passage 1 does not
mention these companies to profile the technological advances in space
mining, the profit margins from space mining, or the diverse approaches to
space mining.
QUESTION 43.
Choice A is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 explicitly states that
one benefit to space mining is access to precious metals and earth elements:
“within a few decades, [space mining] may be meeting earthly demands for
precious metals, such as platinum and gold, and the rare earth elements vital
for personal electronics, such as yttrium and lanthanum” (lines 18-22).
Choice B is incorrect because Passage 1 does not suggest that precious met-
als extracted from space may make metals more valuable on Earth. Choice C
and Choice D are incorrect because Passage 1 never mentions how space
mining could create unanticipated technological innovations or change sci-
entists’ understanding of space resources.
13
QUESTION 44.
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 18-22 suggest that space mining may
help meet “earthly demands for precious metals . . . and the rare earth ele-
ments vital for personal electronics.” In this statement, the author is stat-
ing materials (“metals,” “earth elements”) that may be gathered as a result of
space mining, and that these materials may be important to Earth’s economy.
Choices B, C, and D do not provide the best evidence for the answer to
the previous question. Choice B is incorrect because lines 24-28 focus on
an “off-planet economy” but never address positive effects of space mining.
Choice C is incorrect because lines 29-30 suggest the relative value of water
found in space. Choice D is incorrect because lines 41-44 state that space
mining companies hope to find specific resources in lunar soil and asteroids
but do not address how these resources are important to Earth’s economy.
QUESTION 45.
Choice D is the best answer. The author suggests in lines 19-22 that space
mining may meet “earthly demands for precious metals, such as platinum
and gold, and the rare earth elements vital for personal electronics.” In this
sentence, “earthly demands” suggests that people want, or desire, these pre-
cious metals and rare earth elements.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context “demands” does
not mean offers, claims, or inquiries.
QUESTION 46.
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 29-30 introduce the idea that water
mined in space may be very valuable: “water mined from other worlds could
become the most desired commodity.” Lines 35-40 support this assertion by
suggesting how mined space water could be used “for drinking or as a radia-
tion shield” (lines 36-37) or to make “spacecraft fuel” (line 38).
Choice A is incorrect because the comparison in the previous paragraph (the
relative value of gold and water to someone in the desert) is not expanded
upon in lines 35-40. Choice B is incorrect because the question asked in the
previous paragraph is also answered in that paragraph. Choice D is incorrect
because no specific proposals are made in the previous paragraph; rather, an
assertion is made and a question is posed.
QUESTION 47.
Choice B is the best answer. The author of Passage 2 recognizes that
space mining may prove beneficial to humanity, stating that “we all stand
to gain: the mineral bounty and spin-off technologies could enrich us all”
(lines 50-52). The author also repeatedly mentions that space mining should
be carefully considered before it is implemented: “But before the miners
14
start firing up their rockets, we should pause for thought” (lines 53-54); “But
[space mining’s] consequences—both here on Earth and in space—merit
careful consideration” (lines 57-59).
Choice A is incorrect because the author of Passage 2 concedes that “space
mining seems to sidestep most environmental concerns” (lines 55-56) but
does not imply that space mining will recklessly harm the environment,
either on Earth or in space. Choice C is incorrect because the author of
Passage 2 does not address any key resources that may be disappearing on
Earth. Choice D is incorrect because the author of Passage 2 admits that
“resources that are valuable in orbit and beyond may be very different to
those we prize on Earth” (lines 74-76) but does not mention any disagree-
ment about the commercial viabilities of space mining discoveries.
QUESTION 48.
Choice A is the best answer. In lines 60-66, the author presents some envi-
ronmental arguments against space mining: “[space] is not ours to despoil”
and we should not “[glut] ourselves on space’s riches.” The author then sug-
gests that these environmental arguments will be hard to “hold,” or maintain,
when faced with the possible monetary rewards of space mining: “History
suggests that those will be hard lines to hold . . .” (line 68).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, “hold” does not
mean grip, restrain, or withstand.
QUESTION 49.
Choice D is the best answer. The author of Passage 1 is excited about the
possibilities of space mining and how it can yield valuable materials, such
as metals and elements (lines 19-20 and lines 41-42), water ice (line 35),
and space dirt (line 44). The author of Passage 2, on the other hand, recog-
nizes the possible benefits of space mining but also states that space mining
should be thoughtfully considered before being implemented. Therefore, the
author of Passage 2 expresses some concerns about a concept discussed in
Passage 1.
Choice A is incorrect because the author of Passage 2 does not refute the
central claim of Passage 1; both authors agree there are possible benefits to
space mining. Choice B is incorrect because the author of Passage 1 does
not describe space mining in more general terms than does the author of
Passage 2. Choice C is incorrect because the author of Passage 2 is not sug-
gesting that the space mining proposals stated in Passage 1 are impractical.
QUESTION 50.
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 18-28, the author of Passage 1 describes
many of the possible economic benefits of space mining, including the
15
building of “an off-planet economy” (line 25). The author of Passage 2 warns
that there may be ramifications to implementing space mining and building
an “emerging off-world economy” (line 73) without regulation: “But miners
have much to gain from a broad agreement on the for-profit exploitation of
space. Without consensus, claims will be disputed, investments risky, and
the gains made insecure” (lines 83-87).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the author of Passage 2 does
not suggest that the benefits to space mining mentioned in lines 18-28 of
Passage 1 are unsustainable, unachievable, or will negatively affect Earth’s
economy. Rather, the author recognizes the benefits of space mining but
advocates for the development of regulation procedures.
QUESTION 51.
Choice D is the best answer. In lines 85-87, the author of Passage 2 states
that the future of space mining will prove difficult without regulations
because “claims will be disputed, investments risky, and the gains made
insecure.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the best evi-
dence for the answer to the previous question. Choice A is incorrect because
lines 60-63 present some environmental concerns toward space mining.
Choice B is incorrect because lines 74-76 focus on how space mining may
discover valuable resources that are different from the ones found on Earth.
Choice C is incorrect because lines 81-83 simply describe one person’s
objections to the regulation of the space mining industry.
QUESTION 52.
Choice A is the best answer because both Passage 1 and Passage 2 indi-
cate a belief that the resources most valued in space may differ from those
most valued on our planet. Passage 2 says this explicitly in lines 74-76: “The
resources that are valuable in orbit and beyond may be very different to
those we prize on Earth.” Meanwhile Passage 1 suggests that water mined
from space may be more valuable than metals or other earth elements when
creating an “off-plant economy” (lines 25-30).
Choice B is incorrect because neither passage discusses, either implicitly or
explicitly, the need for space mining to be inexpensive. Choice C is incor-
rect because Passage 2 does not specifically identify precious metals or rare
earth elements but instead focuses on theoretical problems with space min-
ing. Choice D is incorrect because diminishing resources on Earth is not
discussed in Passage 2.
16
Section 2: Writing and Language T est
QUESTION 1.
Choice D is the best answer because “outweigh” is the only choice that
appropriately reflects the relationship the sentence sets up between “advan-
tages” and “drawbacks.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each implies a competitive rela-
tionship that is inappropriate in this context.
QUESTION 2.
Choice B is the best answer because it offers a second action that farmers
can undertake to address the problem of acid whey disposal, thus support-
ing the claim made in the previous sentence (“To address the problem of
disposal, farmers have found a number of uses for acid whey”).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not offer examples of how
farmers could make use of acid whey.
QUESTION 3.
Choice A is the best answer because it results in a sentence that is gram-
matically correct and coherent. In choice A, “waterways,” the correct plural
form of “waterway,” conveys the idea that acid whey could impact multiple
bodies of water. Additionally, the compound verb “can pollute” suggests that
acid whey presents an ongoing, potential problem.
Choices B and D are incorrect because both use the possessive form of
“waterway.” Choice C is incorrect because it creates an unnecessary shift in
verb tense. The present tense verb “can pollute” should be used instead, as it
is consistent with the other verbs in the paragraph.
QUESTION 4.
Choice C is the best answer because it utilizes proper punctuation for items
listed in a series. In this case those items are nouns: “Y ogurt manufacturers,
food scientists, and government officials.”
Choices A and B are incorrect because both fail to recognize that the items
are a part of a series. Since a comma is used after “manufacturers,” a semi-
colon or colon should not be used after “scientists.” Choice D is incorrect
because the comma after “and” is unnecessary and deviates from grammati-
cal conventions for presenting items in a series.
QUESTION 5.
Choice C is the best answer because sentence 5 logically links sentence 2,
which explains why Greek yogurt production yields large amounts of acid
17
whey, and sentence 3, which mentions the need to dispose of acid whey
properly.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because each would result in an illogical
progression of sentences for this paragraph. If sentence 5 were left where it is
or placed after sentence 3, it would appear illogically after the discussion of
“the problem of disposal.” If sentence 5 were placed after sentence 1, it would
illogically discuss “acid-whey runoff” before the mention of acid whey being
“difficult to dispose of.”
QUESTION 6.
Choice D is the best answer because the paragraph includes several ben-
efits of consuming Greek yogurt, particularly in regard to nutrition and sat-
isfying hunger, to support the sentence’s claim that the conservation efforts
are “well worth the effort.” This transition echoes the passage’s earlier claim
that “the advantages of Greek yogurt outweigh the potential drawbacks of its
production.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they inaccurately describe the
sentence in question.
QUESTION 7.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a grammatically standard
preposition that connects the verb “serves” and noun “digestive aid” and
accurately depicts their relationship.
Choice A is incorrect because the infinitive form “to be” yields a grammati-
cally incorrect verb construction: “serves to be.” Choices C and D are incor-
rect because both present options that deviate from standard English usage.
QUESTION 8.
Choice C is the best answer because it presents a verb tense that is consistent
in the context of the sentence. The choice is also free of the redundant “it.”
Choice A is incorrect because the subject “it” creates a redundancy. Choices
B and D are incorrect because they present verb tenses that are inconsistent
in the context of the sentence.
QUESTION 9.
Choice A is the best answer because it properly introduces an additional
health benefit in a series of sentences that list health benefits. “Also” is the
logical and coherent choice to communicate an addition.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because none of the transitions they offer
logically fits the content that precedes or follows the proposed choice.
18
QUESTION 10.
Choice A is the best answer because “satiated” is the only choice that com-
municates effectively that Greek yogurt will satisfy hunger for a longer
period of time.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is improper usage in this con-
text. A person can be “fulfilled” spiritually or in other ways, but a person who
has eaten until he or she is no longer hungry cannot be described as fulfilled.
Neither can he or she be described as being “complacent” or “sufficient.”
QUESTION 11.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a syntactically coherent and
grammatically correct sentence.
Choices A and C are incorrect because the adverbial conjunctions “there-
fore” and “so,” respectively, are unnecessary following “Because.” Choice D is
incorrect because it results in a grammatically incomplete sentence (the part
of the sentence before the colon must be an independent clause).
QUESTION 12.
Choice B is the best answer because the graph clearly indicates that, on March 5,
average low temperatures are at their lowest point: 12 degrees Fahrenheit.
Choice A is incorrect because the phrase “as low as” suggests that the tem-
perature falls no lower than 20 degrees Fahrenheit, but the chart shows that
in January, February, and March, the temperature frequently falls below that
point. Choices C and D are incorrect because the information each provides
is inconsistent with the information on the chart.
QUESTION 13.
Choice A is the best answer because it concisely combines the two sen-
tences while maintaining the original meaning.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each is unnecessarily wordy, thus
undermining one purpose of combining two sentences: to make the phras-
ing more concise.
QUESTION 14.
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a conjunctive adverb that
accurately represents the relationship between the two sentences. “However”
signals an exception to a case stated in the preceding sentence.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because each provides a transition that
does not accurately represent the relationship between the two sentences,
and as a result each compromises the logical coherence of these sentences.
19
《—新能源汽车技术》试题 专业:汽车运用与维修(技能)课程名称:汽车新能源技术满分:10 0.0 1.1、 正确答案:A 答案解析: 1.2、 正确答案:B 答案解析: 1.3、 正确答案:B 答案解析: 1.4、 正确答案:B 答案解析: 1.5、 正确答案:B 答案解析: 1.6、 正确答案:C 答案解析: 1.7、 正确答案:B 答案解析: 1.8、 正确答案:C 答案解析: 1.9、 正确答案:B 答案解析: 1.10、 正确答案:D 答案解析: 1.11、 正确答案:B
答案解析:1.12、 正确答案:D
答案解析: 1.13、正确答案:C 答案解析: 1.14、正确答案:D 答案解析: 1.15、正确答案:D 答案解析: 1.16、正确答案:B 答案解析: 1.17、正确答案:A 答案解析: 1.18、正确答案:D 答案解析: 1.19、正确答案:D 答案解析: 1.20、正确答案:C 答案解析:第 2 部分:判断题((每小题 1.5 分,共30 分)) 2.1、 正确答案:正确答案解析: 2.2、 正确答案:错误答案解析: 2.3、 正确答案:正确答案解析: 2.4、 正确答案:正确答案解析: 2.5、 正确答案:错误答案解析: 2.6、
正确答案:正确答案解析: 2.7、正确答案:错误答案解析:2.8、正确答案:正确答案解析:2.9、正确答案:错误答案解析:2.10、正确答案:正确答案解析:2.11、正确答案:正确答案解析:2.12、正确答案:正确答案解析:2.13、正确答案:正确答案解析:2.14、正确答案:错误答案解析:2.15、正确答案:正确答案解析:2.16、正确答案:错误答案解析:2.17、正确答案:正确答案解析:2.18、正确答案:错误答案解析:2.19、正确答案:正确答案解析: 2.20、
最新河南电大《地域文化》教学考一体化网考作业试题及答案一、单选题 1. 首创“飞白书”体的书法家是 1.00分 A. 褚遂良B. 蔡邕 C. 锺繇 D. 刘德昇 2.《杂体诗》30首的作者是 1.00分 A. 谢朓 B. 谢灵运C. 江淹 D. 庾信 3.《贞观政要》的作者是 1.00分 A. 魏徵 B. 吴兢 C. 岑文本 D. 姚崇 4.被称为“北方书圣”的书法家是 1.00分 A. 褚遂良B. 郑道昭 C. 锺繇 D. 孙过庭 5.被南阳人称为“召父”的召信臣所属的朝代是 1.00分 A. 唐朝B. 西汉 C. 隋朝 D. 东汉 6.被后人称为“商圣”的是 1.00分 A. 张衡 B. 张仲景C. 范蠡 D. 吴道子 7.书法理论著作《九势》作者是 1.00分 A. 锺繇 B. 蔡邕 C. 蔡文姬 D. 刘德昇 8.《祭十二郎文》的作者 1.00分 A. 白居易 B. 元稹 C. 韩愈 D. 元结 9.散文成就居“唐宋八大家”之首的作家是 1.00分 A. 杜甫 B. 白居易 C. 韩愈 D. 李商隐 10.《壮悔堂集》的作者是 1.00分 A. 史可法B. 侯方域 C. 彭而述 D. 王铎 11.《驴山公九锡文》的作者是 1.00分 A. 范缜 B. 谢灵运 C. 袁淑 D. 谢朓 12.《治安策》的作者是 1.00分 A. 韩非子 B. 李斯 C. 蔡邕D. 贾谊 13.山水画论《林泉高致》的作者是 1.00分 A. 郭熙 B. 李迪 C. 李唐 D. 吴道子 14.被后人称为“科圣”的是 1.00分 A. 郑国 B. 李诫 C. 褚少孙D. 张衡 15.《述归赋》的作者是 1.00分 A. 耿介 B. 高拱 C. 何景明 D. 吕坤 16.在宋代使“隶法复兴”书法家是 1.00分 A. 黄庭坚 B. 蔡襄 C. 王洙 D. 苏轼 17.游记散文《茅阁记》的作者是 1.00分 A. 韩愈 B. 萧颖士C. 元结 D. 贾至 18.《大任先生传》的作者是 1.00分 A. 李斯 B. 蔡邕 C. 贾谊 D. 阮籍 19.《神灭论》的作者是 1.00分 A. 袁淑 B. 谢灵运 C. 蔡邕D. 范缜 20.被称作“红杏尚书”的诗人是 1.00分 A. 程颢 B. 宋庠 C. 程颐 D. 宋祁 21.被称为“成周”的城市是 1.00分 A. 登封B. 洛阳 C. 开封 D. 商丘 22.被后人称为的“诗圣”的是 1.00分 A. 白居易B. 杜甫 C. 李贺 D. 李商隐 23.山水画理论著作《笔法记》的作者是 1.00分 A. 李迪 B. 李唐 C. 吴道子D. 荆浩 24.豫中文化区的主流文化是 1.00分 A. 郑韩文化 B. 河洛文化 C. 燕赵文化 D. 陈宋文化 25.被后人称为“字圣”的是 1.00分 A. 褚遂良 B. 锺繇 C. 吴道子D. 许慎 26.被后人称为“医圣”的是 1.00分 A. 张衡 B. 郑国 C. 李诫 D. 张仲景 27.被称为“行书鼻祖”的书法家是 1.00分 A. 蔡邕B. 刘德昇 C. 褚遂良 D. 锺繇 28.洛阳首作为国都的朝代是 1.00分 A. 西周 B. 东汉 C. 西汉 D. 东周 29.豫东文化区的主流文化是 1.00分 A. 河洛文化B. 陈宋文化 C. 燕赵文化 D. 郑韩文化 30.自号“安乐先生”的是 1.00分 A. 张载 B. 程颢 C. 邵雍 D. 程颐 31.被书坛誉为“楷书之祖”的是 1.00分 A. 褚遂良B. 锺繇 C. 蔡邕 D. 刘德昇 32.广义的中原指 1.00分 A. 河南省 B. 黄河中游地区 C. 黄河中上游地区D. 黄河中下游地区 33.《苏学士集》的作者是 1.00分 A. 苏轼 B. 苏辙C. 苏舜钦 D. 苏洵 34.中原被称为“楚风豫韵”的文化区域是 1.00分 A. 豫东 B. 豫北 C. 豫中D. 豫南 35.非物质文化遗产联合国教科文组织的标准称谓是 1.00分 A. 审美文化遗产 B. 伦理文化遗产 C. 人类口述和非物质遗产 D. 无形遗产 36.“南宋四家”属于中原画家的是 1.00分 A. 马远 B. 刘松年 C. 李唐 D. 夏圭 37.“画圣”吴道子为 1.00分 A. 晋涅阳人B. 唐阳翟人 C. 隋汝南人 D. 宋白波人 38.被南阳人称为“杜母”的杜诗所属的朝代是 1.00分 A. 东汉 B. 唐朝 C. 隋朝 D. 西汉 39.《书谱》的作者是 1.00分 A. 郑道昭 B. 褚遂良C. 孙过庭 D. 王洙 40.画家宗炳所属的朝代是 1.00分 A. 宋 B. 西晋 C. 东晋 D. 唐 1.孔子还乡祠位于 2.00分 A. 今夏邑县 B. 今淮阳县 C. 今永城市 D. 今睢县 2.被孔子称为“瑚琏之器”的弟子是 2.00分 A. 子贡 B. 子张 C. 曾参 D. 子夏 3.庄子所属的时代是 2.00分 A. 秦朝 B. 春秋时期 C. 西汉D. 战国时代
电大答案新地域文化本形考山西历史与文化单元1
地域文化课程(本科) 第一次作业任务: 一、判断题(每小题2分,共20分) 1、早在10万年前,山西这块土地上就繁衍、生息着中华民族的先祖,她们创造了绚丽多彩的远古文化,也为我们留下了大量的内涵丰富、特征鲜明的文化遗存。(错误) 2、从人类的出现到国家的产生,在山西形成了一个绵延不断且自成体系的文化发展序列。(正确) 3、山西,不但是中国远古人类文化的发祥地,更是中华文明的重要发源地,又因创立华夏文明的帝王黄帝、炎帝、尧、舜、禹的活动中心都在晋南,因而晋南又是“帝王所都”。(正确) 4、旧石器时代是人类历史的最后阶段,与地质学上的第四纪更新世大致相当。(错误) 5、人类自身的体质演进也经历了猿人、类人猿、新人三个阶段。(错误) 6、山西地区的旧石器文化遗址分布相当广泛,其数量多,文化内涵丰富,而且文化年代衔接,历史脉络清晰,形成了绵延不断的旧石器文化发展序列。(正确) 7、在旷古而久远的旧石器时代,山西地区曾是中国原始人类繁衍生息的集中地带,也是我们民族的先民们最早开发的地区之。(错误)
8、西侯度遗址位于运城市芮城县风陵渡镇以北约10公里处的西侯度村一带,距今约180万年,(正确) 9、下川遗址是迄今所知中国境内最古老的一处文化遗址,而且也是世界范围最古老的文化遗址之一。(错误) 10、从动物群生态分析,旧石器时的晋南应是四季分明的疏林草原环境。(正确) 11、考古学家称之为“大石器传统”,“西侯度人便是大石器传统的开山之祖”。(正确) 12、从西侯度人石器的打制技术来看,她们已经采用了锤击、碰砧、砸击的三种方法,用这些方法从石材上获取石片,再将这些石片加工成石器,考古学家称这为“石片文化传统”。(正确) 13、下川的石片文化,为探索人类石片文化的起源提供了重要的依据,从而也证明了中国是世界上最早应用石片技术的国家。(错误)14、被火烧过的兽骨、鹿角和马牙化石,是龙山发现的最为引人注目的一类文化遗物,它证明西侯度人当时已经开始用火。(错误)15、五、六十万年前曾经生活在西侯度的“北京人”也使用火,但在北京人用火的遗迹中发现有成堆的灰烬,不使火到处蔓延。(错误) 16、北京人不但已经使用了火,而且还懂得用篝火的方法保持火种,以控制火的使用,也就是已经初步认识和掌握了火的一般规律,可见绝不是处于用火的起步阶段,在此以前,肯定还走过了十分漫长的用火道路。(正确)
汽车技术理论课程考试试卷 考试课程:汽车新技术考核性质:考试课考试方式:闭卷 试卷套号: 试卷类型:B卷学年学期:0000000000考试时间:120分钟满分:100分 姓名:考号:班级: 一、单项选择题(从下列各题四个备选答案中选出一个正确答案,并将其代号写在相应位置处。答案错选或未选者,该题不得分。每小题2分,共20分。) 6、负温度系数的热敏电阻其阻值随温度的升高而( )。 A. 升高 B. 降低 C. 不受影响 D. 先高后低 7、当结构确定后,电磁喷油器的喷油量主要决定于()。 A. 喷油脉宽 B. 点火提前角 C. 工作温度 8、在暖机过程中,ECU根据()按内存的控制性控制控制阀的开度. A. 进气温度 B. 节气门开度 C .冷却液温度 D. 凸轮轴位置 9、电力助力效果与液压助力效果相比() A. 前者小于后者 B. 后者小于前者 C. 不确定 D. 一样 10、四轮转向时,后轮与前轮的偏转相反,汽车的转弯半径() A. 减小 B. 增大 C. 不确定 D. 不变 11、四轮转向时,后轮与前轮的偏转相同,汽车的转弯半径() A. 减小 B. 增大 C. 不确定 D. 不变 12、四轮转向系统在低速或急转弯行驶时,后轮() A. 逆向偏转 B. 同向偏转 C. 先逆后同 D. 先同后逆 13、机械式四轮转向系统,低速时转向盘必须转过()后,后轮才能逆向偏转。 A. 5° B. 200° C. 35° D. 29°
1、汽车诞生在年。 A.1885 B.1888 C.1886 2、甲壳虫型汽车是()成功设计的。 A.卡尔·本茨B.雪铁龙C.费迪南德·保时捷D.恩佐·法拉利 3、下列哪种属于间接测量空气流量的传感器。() A. 叶片式空气流量计 B. 热膜式空气流量计 C. 热线式空气流量计 D. 进气歧管压力传感器 4、某汽油喷射系统的汽油压力过高,以下哪项正确。() A. 电动汽油泵的电刷接触不良 B. 回油管堵塞 C. 汽油压力调节器密封不严 D. 以上都正确 5、对喷油量起决定性作用的是( )。 A. 空气流量计 B. 水温传感器 C. 氧传感器 D. 节气门位置传感器 14、为保证传感器无错误信号输出,安装车速传感器时应保证其传感器头与齿 圈间留有一定的空气隙,约为( ) 。 A. 5mm B. 1mm C. 0.01mm D. 1um 15、当滑移率为100%时,横向附着系数降为( ) 。 A. 100% B. 50% C. 0 D. 都不正确 16、循环式制动压力调节器是在制动总缸与轮缸之间( )一个电磁阀,直接 控制轮缸的制动压力。 A. 串联 B. 并联 C. 都可以 D. 以上答案均不正确 17、车轮速度传感器出现故障,以下( )项不可能是故障原因。 A. 传感头脏污 B. 传感头与齿圈间隙不符要求 C. 线圈断路 D. 制动盘磨损严重 18、装有ABS 系统的汽车,轮速传感器向电脑发出( )信号。 A. 电流 B. 频率 C. 电阻 D. 电压 19、下列( )最不可能是ABS 系统出现间歇性故障的原因。 A. 在车轮传感器中电气接头损坏 B. 电磁阀电气端子损坏 C. 控制装置接头松动 D. 车轮传感器回路断开
一.判断题 第一测试 1.中国第一所培养陆军军官的院校天津武警学堂创建于1885年。错误 2.12月25日是天津的诞辰之日。错误 3.明中叶以后,天津成为南北交通运输的水陆码头。错误 4.天津城市的风云变化,在一定意义上就是近代中国历史的缩影。正确 5.中国最早的城市公交系统始于天津的无轨电车。错误 6.天津地热资源具有埋藏深,水质好的特点。 错误 7.天津早在1987年就被列为十四个沿海开放城市之一。错误 8.天津义和团的首领曹福田在吕祖堂设立了总坛口。正确 9.1406年,朱棣下令设立了“天津左卫”和“天津右卫”。错误 10.引岸专商制度阻碍了天津经济的发展。错误 11.天津沽塘耕植畜牧公司是近代中国第一家股份制农场。正确 12.第二次大沽口保卫战,使大沽口陷落,天津门户洞开。错误 13.天津是环渤海地区经济中心和中国北方最大的沿海开放城市。正确 14.通过《北京条约》,外国侵略者实现了开辟天津为通商口岸的梦想。正确 15.第一次大沽口保卫战是近代以来中国反侵略战争中唯一一次的重大胜利。错误 16.1404年的设卫筑城是天津城市史的原点。对 17.李鸿章在紫竹林、天津之间试架电报线路,这是中国最早创办的电报。错误 18.天津港目前已经同世界上的180多个国家和地区的400多个港口保持贸易往来。正确 19.天津的路虽曲折难记,实际是有规律的。南北向为“道”,东西向为“路”。错误 20.1862年12月,被命名为“胜利后母堂”的大教堂落成。中国人称之为“望海楼教堂”或“河楼教堂”。正确 第二次测试 1.1916年10月25日天津各界八千多民众在鼓楼集会,成立了天津民众大会。错误 2.天津解放的当天,以黄克诚为市长的天津市人民政府宣告成立。正确 3.天津最著名的两个天后宫为:灵慈宫、大刀宫。正确 4.北京是我国近代航运事业的决策中心和重要发源地。错误 5.津浦铁路是中国近代史上第一条自办的铁路 正确 6.1903年天津成立了商务总会。错误 7.为了保证漕船运粮安全,金朝在武清和柳口派驻了“巡检”。正确 8.1912年1月天津暗杀团成立,团长为直隶无极人薛成华。错误 9.商业销售与建筑风格为劝业场带来了大量客源和丰厚的利润。错误 10.天津商会的爱国主义壮举突出表现在1916年的老西开事件和1919年的五四运动中。正确11.天津新“八大家”中孙胡两家合办的敦庆隆绸缎庄落户于估衣街。错误 12.“五四运动”是以工人阶级为先导,以学生为主力的一场反帝爱国革命运动。错误 13.1881年5月13日,中国最早的货运铁路唐胥铁路正式开工建设,同年11月8日举行了通车典礼。正确 14.塘沽新港举行典礼是天津港由河港向海港转折的重要标志。正确 15.谦祥益是山东孟氏创办的“祥”字号之一。正确 16.用于转运的粮仓被称为“水次仓”。正确 17.在世界其他国家也有天妃宫,妈祖文化已经成为了世界性的文化现象。正确 18.天津“八大家”不都是以盐、粮为发家致富的主要手段的。错误 19.宝成纱厂党支部是天津工人的第一个党支部。正确 20.1949年1月15日,天津市人民政府成立。 正确 第三次测试 1.天津的典当业兴起于明代,但有文字记载始于清朝。正确 2.1878年3月23日,天津海关书信馆开始收寄华洋公众信件,标志着中国近代邮政的诞生,这一天成为中国近代邮政的创办日。正确 3.天津商业繁荣的标志是集市的增多和繁华商业区的形成。正确 4.天津是近代中国外交和对外商务活动的中心。正确 5.民国初年,政府颁布了若干有利于民族工业发展的政策法令,体现了资产阶级的政治经济利益。正确
地域文化课程(本科) 第四次作业任务: 一、判断题(每小题2分,共20分) 1、汉高祖二年,刘邦乘项羽攻打田荣之际,采纳韩信的建议,“明修栈道,暗渡陈仓”,还定三晋。(错误) 2、韩信大军横扫河东,河东52城尽数攻占,韩信在这里设置了汉的河东郡,这是刘邦直接统治山西的开始。(正确) 3、井陉之战的胜利,使赵归属西汉王朝的统辖,汉又设置了太原郡和上党郡。(正确) 4、西汉的政治体制基本上“汉承秦制”。(正确) 5、汉高祖十一年(前196),刘邦又立第4子刘恒为代王,其封地领有太原郡、雁门郡、代郡,共辖53县。初都晋阳,后徙都中都(今山西榆次)。(正确) 6、吕后死,丞相陈平、太尉周勃、朱虚侯刘章等大臣在诛灭诸吕势力之后,一致主张迎立代王刘恒为帝。(正确) 7、刘恒得知拥立是真之后,刘恒才赴京即位,是为汉文帝。(正确) 8、汉武帝在位23年,继续执行“与民休息”的政策,轻徭薄赋,约法省禁,使社会稳定,生产发展,形成了“文景之治”的繁荣景象。(错误) 9、山西不仅是汉文帝的发迹之地,也是保卫京师的边陲要地,汉文帝在他在位的23年时间里,曾先后2次巡游山西。(错误)
10、汉文帝前元三年(前177),文帝出京东巡,在太原居留十余天,召见代国旧臣,给予丰厚赏赐,还免除晋阳、中都百姓三年租税。(正确) 11、汉文帝四次巡视,对于显示皇恩、鼓舞民心、稳定社会都具有积极的意义。(正确) 12、汉武帝在称帝的第二年(前178),封子刘武为代王,刘参为太原王,把代国一分为二。(错误) 13、“白登之围”迫使刘邦放弃了进击匈奴的计划,采用娄敬建议的“和亲”政策。(正确) 14、汉武帝刘彻即位后,汉朝经过几代人的励精图治,休养生息,中央集权大大加强,经济实力空前雄厚,反击匈奴的条件已完全成熟,汉武帝决定抛弃“和亲”政策,展开对匈奴的大规模反击,反击匈奴战争的序幕是从山东拉开的。(错误) 15、马邑之谋掀开了反击匈奴大战的序幕。(正确)。 16、,在汉匈战争中,为西汉王朝立下汗马功劳的将军就是河东人卫青、霍去病。(正确) 17、卫青是随着他父亲地位的变化才有了施展才能的机会,但他本人绝非无能之辈,他能征善战,大破匈奴,为西汉北部疆域的开拓做出过重大贡献,是中国历史上为人熟知的常胜将军。(错误) 18、卫青,西汉河东郡平阳(今山西临汾市)人。(正确) 19、霍去病,河东平阳人。父亲霍仲孺,原是平阳县小吏,母亲就是卫青的二姐卫少儿。(正确)
学年第二学期科目《汽车新技术》考试[ ] 考查[√] 闭卷[ ] 开卷[√ ] A卷[ ] B卷[ ] C卷[ ] D卷[√] 班级姓名学号 一、填空题(每空格1分,共20分) 1.传感器依其构造及作用可分为式、式和式。 2.丰田公司的生态环保汽车研发主题针对,柴油发动机,,电动汽车等五个方向进行。 3.以增压压力分类,增压系统分为增压、增压和增压。 4. 丰田汽车公司的智能型可变气门正时VVTI是、控制装置。 5.复联式复合动力系的组合,由发动机、、减速器、、电机、蓄电池及等组成。 6.汽油喷射系统方面①电子控制式:以电机经,以驱动的开闭。 7.高燃油效率阿特金森循环发动机只在燃油良好的状态下才运转,与传统式汽油发动机比较,有省油性。 8.GDI发动机,汽油系直接喷入气缸中,且喷射精确。 二、判断题(每小题1分,共14分) ()1.现代阿特金森循环发动机使用电子控制装置和进气阀定时装置。 ()2. VVT-i:智慧型可变气门正时系统,进排气门夹角缩小,为33.5°,可缩小气缸盖尺寸。 ()3.复合动力驱动变速箱, 来自发动机的动力输出轴与发电机连接。 ()4.复合动力驱动变速箱,动力分配机构使用行星齿轮。 ()5.复合动力驱动变速箱减速器:利用一对减速齿轮,以达到减速及增强转矩的作用。 ()6.复合动力交流形的维修性比直流形低,还可以当做发动机的辅助动力来源。 ()7.复合动力车辆起步或加速时蓄电池放电,减速或制动时蓄电池充电。 ()8.缸内汽油直接喷射发动机两大优点:省油及高输出功率。 ()9.4G93 GDI发动机与稀薄燃烧汽油发动机相比较佳的低燃油消耗,较高的功率输出。 ()10.D-4发动机为2000cc.DOHC线列四缸16气门发动机,压缩比为8:1。 ()11.连续可变气门正时机构(VVT-i)随着发动机运转状态的变化,进气门的开启时间连续不变,有效利用进气惯性效果,容积效率增加。 ()12.THS的高压蓄电池装盒内除了蓄电池外,还有蓄电ECU、系统主还有蓄电ECU、系统主继电器(SMR)及冷却风扇等。 ()13.D-4发动机的燃料系统组成,分成低压与高压两部分。 ()14.Di发动机是行驶性能的发动机,只能大幅发动机的输出。 三、多项选择题(多选、少选、错选均不得分。每小题3分,共30分) 1.GDI发动机与柴油发动机相比,有较高的()与()输出。 (A) 转动 (B) 功率 (C)磁电(D)转矩 2.D-4发动机主要着重于活塞()燃烧室的设计,呈()型。在()部内混合气成层化的形成。 (A) 顶部 (B)电位计 (C) 深碗(D)凹陷 3.D-4发动机高压燃油泵内的柱塞,是由排气凸轮轴上的()驱动,将()燃油提升至8~13MPa的(),再送至输油管中。 (A) 凹陷 (B) 凸轮 (C) 低压(D)高压 4.Di发动机系统的进气系统构造, 各缸分别有两条()管,其()角度比一般发动机大,且其中一条进气管设有()控制阀。 (A) 进气 (B) 直立 (C)磁电(D)涡流 5.Di发动机采用()喷油器,()压力介于GDI发动机与D—4发动机之间,采用()起动喷油器。 (A) 高电压 (B) 喷射 (C) 冷车(D)电压 6.增压发动机将()的混合气压入气缸中,称为()进气,可提高容积效率,比一股吸气式发动机的动力最大可()35%~60%。 广州市技师学院 广州市高级技工学校 期末试卷
地域文化课程 期末作业 姓名学号 学校成绩
一、简答题 1、简述满族文化 答:满族又称满洲(满语意为"吉祥"的意思),1911年辛亥革命后,官方将“满洲族”改为“满族”。一、不循汉制,别具风流。1、八旗制度与旗民二重制。2、骑射与国语3、服饰与饮食。4、崇信萨满二、以文治汉,满汉一家。1、重视文教,尊孔崇儒。2、重视文艺,成就辉煌。满族文化对于汉家文明的汲取还体现在清以来文学、艺术创作所取得的灿烂成就。 2、“闯关东”文化的影响 答:"闯关东"作为中国历史上最大的一次移民活动,对黑龙江乃至东北社会产生了深远影响。他们的迁人,改变了黑龙江长期以来以牧业和渔猎为主的生产结构,带来了关内的先进农业技术和农作物的品种,将北疆荒原变为世界瞩目的大粮仓,同时也促进了黑龙江工商业的兴起和繁荣。 其次",闯关东"丰富了黑土文化内涵。关内移民带来的以儒家思想为代表的中原礼仪传统、道德观念及风俗信仰,构筑了黑土文化的骨髓。关内民间艺人的到来催生了鲜活的东北民间艺术,典型的就要数二人转和东北大秧歌。最后",闯关东"促进了东北方言的形成。东北方言是"南腔"与"北调"相互融合而产生的一种语言系统,而这种"融合"是各地移民与原住民共同生产、生活的需要。东北方言质朴而纯真,不矫揉造作,与东北人豪放、直率、幽默的性格十分吻合。 3、简述北大荒开发创业文化 答:在中国北方的大、小兴安岭和长白山地之间,有一块南北长1000多千米,东西宽约400千米,总面积达35万平方千米的中国最大的平原一一东北平原。东北平原主要可分为三个部分:东北部位于黑龙江和乌苏里江之间的一块主要是由黑龙江、松花江和乌苏里江冲积而成的三江平原,南部主要是由辽河冲积而成的辽河平原,中部则为松花江和嫩江冲积而成的松嫩平原。虽然这里也曾与中原地区有这样或那样的关联,却从没有被主流文化正式接纳。每每提到北大荒,在人们脑海中往往出现的是与贫困、荒芜联系在一起的景象,尤其是以松嫩平原北部和整个三江平原为甚,直到新中国成立之前,这里都是人烟稀少,荒草满地。新中国
新能源汽车技术期中考 试题及答案 内部编号:(YUUT-TBBY-MMUT-URRUY-UOOY-DBUYI-0128)
学校: 班级: 姓名: 学号: 身份证号:
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11.动力电池组的总电压可以达到()。 A 、36~88V B 、420~500V C 、90~400V D 、12~35V 12.铅酸电池,锂电池,镍氢电池的最佳工作温度是()。 A 、25~40度 B 、0~10度 C 、45~80度 D 、88~100度 13.动力电池组的英文表示为()。 A 、PACK B 、BATTERY C 、ELECTRIC D 、CAR 14.下列不属于电池故障级别信息的是( )。 A 、尽快维修 B 、立即维修 C 、电池报废 D 、电池寿命 15.下列不属于电池成组后会出现的问题的是( )。 A 、过充/过放 B 、温度过高 C 、短路或漏电 D 、充电过慢 16.铅酸蓄电池的正极板是( ) A 、铅 B 、二氧化铅 C 、硫酸 D 、硫酸铅 17.压缩天然气汽车的简称是( )。 A 、LNG B 、ANG C 、CNG D 、LPG 18.目前,国内多少石油依赖进口( ) A 、50% B 、60% C 、70% D 、80% 19.目前国内新能源汽车方面发展最快的企业是( ) A 、JAC B 、JMC C 、东风 D 、BYD 20.下列哪个城市成为中国新能源汽车推广的典范城市( ) A 、南昌 B 、北京 C 、太原 四、简答题 :(每题 5 分,共计 20 分) 1、试述新能源汽车的发展背景? 2、试描述镍-氢蓄电池的优点? 3、试描述你所知道的国内蓄电 池品牌? 4、简述新能源汽车的定义? 一、错对错错错 对错对错错 二、 BADBA DDCDB CAACD BCDDC
汽车新技术试题A 集团标准化工作小组 #Q8QGGQT-GX8G08Q8-GNQGJ8-
汽车技术理论课程考试试卷 考试课程:汽车新技术考核性质:考试课考试方式:闭卷 试卷套号: 试卷类型:B卷学年学期:0000000000考试时间:120分钟满分:100分 一、单项选择题(从下列各题四个备选答案中选出一个正确答案,并将其代 号写在相应位置处。答案错选或未选者,该题不得分。每小题2分,共20分。)6、负温度系数的热敏电阻其阻值随温度的升高而( )。 A. 升高 B. 降低 C. 不受影响 D. 先高后低 7、当结构确定后,电磁喷油器的喷油量主要决定于()。 A. 喷油脉宽 B. 点火提前角 C. 工作温度 8、在暖机过程中,ECU根据()按内存的控制性控制控制阀的开度. A. 进气温度 B. 节气门开度 C .冷却液温度 D. 凸轮轴位置 9、电力助力效果与液压助力效果相比() A. 前者小于后者 B. 后者小于前者 C. 不确定 D. 一样 10、四轮转向时,后轮与前轮的偏转相反,汽车的转弯半径() A. 减小 B. 增大 C. 不确定 D. 不变 11、四轮转向时,后轮与前轮的偏转相同,汽车的转弯半径() A. 减小 B. 增大 C. 不确定 D. 不变 12、四轮转向系统在低速或急转弯行驶时,后轮() A. 逆向偏转 B. 同向偏转 C. 先逆后同 D. 先同后逆 13、机械式四轮转向系统,低速时转向盘必须转过()后,后轮才能逆向偏转。 A. 5° B. 200° C. 35° D. 29° 1、汽车诞生在年。 A.1885 B.1888 C.1886 2、甲壳虫型汽车是()成功设计的。 A.卡尔·本茨 B.雪铁龙C.费迪南德·保时捷 D.恩佐·法拉利
《地域文化》课程综合练习 一、多选题 1、黑龙江省总体生态环境呈现特殊的多样性和相对的整体性,居全国之首的有()。 A、森林覆盖率 B、木材蓄积量 C、木材产量 D、矿产资源 2、漫长历史传承中,黑龙江流域养育了为数众多的古代民族,这些民族分为三个族系,即()。 A、匈奴、鲜卑、柔然、敕勒 B、东胡族系的乌桓、鲜卑、契丹、蒙古 C、束慎、挹娄、勿吉、靺鞨、女真、满洲 D、濊貊族系的夫馀、高句丽 3、在黑龙江的历史文化中,高峰是()。 A、渤海文化 B、大汶口文化 C、金源文化 D、龙口文化 4、中原文化进入黑龙江主要是通过历代()。 A、移民 B、流民 C、士大夫 D、士兵 5、“闯关东”文化的影响()。 A、“闯关东”铸就了黑龙江人独有的性格特征 B、“闯关东”带来了城市文明和城市文化 C、“闯关东”丰富了黑土文化的内涵 D、“闯关东”促进了东北方言的形成 6、黑土文化的特征是()。 A、黑土文化的厚重性 B、黑土文化的包容性 C、黑土文化的多元性 D、黑土文化的边缘性 7、黑土文化的包容性突出体现在()。
A、北大荒是“流人”、“右派”的安身地 B、北大荒是“知识青年”的第二故乡 C、善待犹太人是人道主义的光辉记录 D、接纳“日本遗孤”是博大胸怀的展现 8、黑土文化的多元性除城市建筑的多元,还表现在()。 A、宗教信仰的多元 B、文化消遣的多元 C、风俗习惯的多元 D、方言词汇的多元 9、黑土文化的边缘性表现在()。 A、黑龙江历史文化的边缘性 B、黑龙江近代文化的边缘性 C、黑龙江当代文化的边缘性 D、黑龙江原住民文化的边缘性 10、黑土文化的精神内涵()。 A、英勇不屈的抗争精神 B、顽强拼搏的创业精神 C、大公无私的奉献精神 D、和谐友爱的团队精神 11、黑土文化对中华文化的贡献()。 A、黑土文化对文明起源的贡献 B、黑土文化对观念制度的贡献 C、黑土文化对精神气质的贡献 D、黑土文化对文化艺术的贡献 12、鲜卑族人的“贵少贱老”的伦理习俗的价值核心是()。 A、“崇武” B、“尚勇” C、“伦理” D、“道德” 13、渤海国教育分为以下几种()。 A、国学 B、地方官学 C、乡学 D、私学 14、目前已发现的渤海国墓葬中,较为典型的有()。 A、三陵坟二号墓 B、茂陵公墓 C、贞惠公主墓 D、贞孝公主墓
汽车技术理论课程考试试卷 一、单项选择题(从下列各题四个备选答案中选出一个正确答案,并将其代号写在相应位置处。答案错选或未选者,该题不得分。每小题2分,共20分。)6、负温度系数的热敏电阻其阻值随温度的升高而( )。 A. 升高 B. 降低 C. 不受影响 D. 先高后低 7、当结构确定后,电磁喷油器的喷油量主要决定于()。 A. 喷油脉宽 B. 点火提前角 C. 工作温度 8、在暖机过程中,ECU根据()按内存的控制性控制控制阀的开度. A. 进气温度 B. 节气门开度 C .冷却液温度 D. 凸轮轴位置 9、电力助力效果与液压助力效果相比() A. 前者小于后者 B. 后者小于前者 C. 不确定 D. 一样 10、四轮转向时,后轮与前轮的偏转相反,汽车的转弯半径()
A. 减小 B. 增大 C. 不确定 D. 不变 11、四轮转向时,后轮与前轮的偏转相同,汽车的转弯半径() A. 减小 B. 增大 C. 不确定 D. 不变 12、四轮转向系统在低速或急转弯行驶时,后轮() A. 逆向偏转 B. 同向偏转 C. 先逆后同 D. 先同后逆 13、机械式四轮转向系统,低速时转向盘必须转过()后,后轮才能逆向偏转。 A. 5° B. 200° C. 35° D. 29° 1、汽车诞生在年。 A.1885 B.1888 C.1886 2、甲壳虫型汽车是()成功设计的。 A.卡尔·本茨 B.雪铁龙 C.费迪南德·保时捷 D.恩佐·法拉利 3、下列哪种属于间接测量空气流量的传感器。() A. 叶片式空气流量计 B. 热膜式空气流量计 C. 热线式空气流量计 D. 进气歧管压力传感器 4、某汽油喷射系统的汽油压力过高,以下哪项正确。()
电大地域文化形考答案 客观题共28题(满分100分) 一、单项选择题(共10题,每题3分) 第1题(已答). 2007年,闽北籍台资投资兴办了(),该校被福建省教育厅确定为闽北唯一的一所承接闽台高职联合培养人才项目的学校,同时也被福建省台联选定为全省首家台胞培训基地。 A. 武夷学院 B. 华侨大学 C. 龙岩学院 D. 厦门大学 【参考答案】A 【答案解析】1 第2题(已答). 古代官方政府采取很多措施加强对福建海外贸易的管理,其中最为有效的就是()。 A. 市舶司 B.
巡检司 C. 榷货务 D. 对渡口 【参考答案】A 【答案解析】 第3题(已答). 五代十国时期的闽国,经济上的突出特点是(),因而此时闽、台经济交往均有所发展。 A. 封闭自锁 B. 发展海上贸易交通 C. 农村集市发展迅速 D. 农业大发展 【参考答案】B 【答案解析】 第4题(已答). 近现代台湾对闽贸易的商品以()为台湾最大宗的产品。 A. 米
B. 糖 C. 煤 D. 木材 【参考答案】A 【答案解析】 第5题(已答). 以下哪项不属于漳州对台交流的成果() A. 截止2010年底.台资企业已达2500多家.涉及农业种植养殖.食品加工.机械制造.电力等行业. B. 台塑集团在此建立了亚洲最大.世界第二的火力发电厂华阳电厂. C. 打造妈祖品牌.带动旅游经济和创意产业发展. D. 灿坤工业园成为亚洲最大的小家电生产基地. 【参考答案】C 【答案解析】 第6题(已答). ()是福建主要风景名胜区,尤其以其典型的碧水丹山奇秀甲东南的双世遗风光,更是吸引了众多的海内外游客。 A.
汽车新技术试题A答案 一、填空题 1、车速传感器、加速度传感器、ECU、制动压力调节器 2、机械增压、气波增压、涡轮增压 3、最大、最小 4、氮气 5、汽车、备用 6主机、功率放大器 7、汽车安全控制、舒适性控制、信息通讯系统 8、开机报警、欠压报警功能、胎温过高报警、胎压过高报警快、速漏气报警、故障报警功能、实时显示轮胎压力值 二、选择题 1——5、BABAC 6——10、ACBCB 11——15、CBADD 三、判断题 1——5、×√√×√6——10、√×√√× 四、名词解释 1、动力转向系统是依靠驾驶员的体能并在其他能源帮助下进行汽车转向的机构。 2、ABS是一种具有防滑、防锁死等优点的汽车安全制动控制系统。 五、简答题 1、利用废气涡轮机,带动与其同轴安装的压气机叶轮工作,新鲜空气在压气机内增压后进入气缸。
2、在涡轮增压系统中都设有进气旁通阀和排气旁通阀,用以控制增压压力,当压气机出口压力低,膜片在膜片弹簧作用下移向右室,使排气旁通阀关当增压压力高,膜片左移,排气旁通阀开,部分排气直接排入大气从而控制增压压力及涡轮机转速。 3、汽车音响技术要注意的地方有四点,一个是安装尺寸和安装技术,一个是音响本身的避震技术,一个是音质的处理技术,一个是抗干扰技术。 六、看图题 1、当s < 20%为制动稳定区域; 当s > 20%为制动非稳定区域; 将车轮滑移率s 控制在20%左右,便可获取最大的纵向附着系数和较大的横向附着系 数,是最理想的控制效果。 2、a1、a2为触发信号端,M为双向直流电动机,当a1受到信号时,V 3、V2导通,电机有电流过正转。当a2受到信号时,V 4、V1导通,电机有电流通过而反转。
电大地域文化平时作业答案
巴渝文化概论第1次平时作业 一、填空题 1. 古代巴地、历史演进 2. 巴文化、秦汉 3.巴渝舞、重庆 4. 200 5. 龙骨坡 6.丰都、 2 万 7.船棺葬具 8.涪陵 9.伏羲氏、巫山山脉 10.廪君 11.槃瓠、板楯、廪君 12.刘禹锡13. 470 、450 、8.2 14.大熔炉、多元 15. 1938 16.雾季公演 17. “七七”18. 红岩、《红岩》 19.中国电影制片厂 二、单项选择题 A B B C A C ? B B D 三.多项选择题 1、ABCD 2. ABCD 3. ABCD 4. BCD 5. ABC 三、简述题 1.简述巴渝地区的古人类遗存。 第一、远古时代的文化遗存: ①早在200多万年前,三峡地区的巫山一带,便 有了人类活动的踪迹。上世纪80年代中期,巫山县
龙骨坡就发掘出距今200万年的被称为巫山猿人的古人类化石“直立人巫山亚种”。 ②14万年前的奉节兴隆洞奉节人, 已经萌生了现代人类思维制作能力. 第二、旧石器、新石器时期巴渝大地的文化遗存: ① 11月,在嘉陵江流域“涪江边发现8万年前的‘合川人’”。考古人员新发现距今8万多年的旧石器时期石器制品多件,这是先民猎杀野兽顽强生存下来的“武器”。 ②上世纪中后期考古工作者曾在丰都发掘出距今万年的旧石器时代遗址,还在铜梁、江津、合川、大渡口等区县境内发现了2万年以前的旧石器。还发现旧石器时代中期文化的遗址——丰都县的井水湾、冉家路口、高家镇、枣子坪、范家河以及能显现旧石器时代晚期文化特征的奉节县的藕塘、云阳的大地坪、忠县的乌杨等。 ③巫山魏家梁子新石器时代遗址。 ④云阳县石盘镇龙安村大地坪新石器遗址,发现了新石器晚期的一些房屋遗址、墓葬、窑址,出土了大批陶器、石器。其中陶器有丰富的色彩、文饰和品种, ⑤巫山县长江瞿塘峡南岸的大溪发现了公元前约4400~33 的人类活动遗址,这就是考古学界指称的大溪文化。 ⑥源于巴县(今重庆九龙坡区铜罐驿)冬笋坝文化,其中最具特征的是船棺葬具。从中国的新石器时代和青铜时代的文化来看,这都是极为少见的。 ⑦上世纪70年代发掘出的涪陵小田溪上古巴王陵墓,有14件一套的错金编钟、虎纽錞(duì)于、铜钲等乐器,有铜戈、铜剑、铜矛、铜镰、铜箭镞等兵器,还有铜盆、铜壶、铜镜、铜釜等生活用具和铜斤(即铜斧),铜凿等生产工具。 这些遗存说明,古代巴文化源远流长,说明了古代巴文化的起源和演进。
《汽车新技术》试题 一、选择题(每题2分,共8分。) 1、汽车诞生在( )年。 A.1885 B.1888 C.1886 2、长春一汽制造出的中国第一辆汽车是()。 A.解放牌4T载货汽车B.东风牌轿车C.黄河牌货车D.红旗轿车 3、()汽车尾部过分向后伸出,形成阶梯状,在高速时会产生较强的空气涡流。A.箱型B.流线型C.船型D.楔形 4、甲壳虫型汽车是()成功设计的。 A.卡尔·本茨B.雪铁龙C.费迪南德·保时捷D.恩佐·法拉利 5、下列哪种属于间接测量空气流量的传感器。() A. 叶片式空气流量计 B. 热膜式空气流量计 C. 热线式空气流量计 D. 进气歧管压力传感器 6、某汽油喷射系统的汽油压力过高,以下哪项正确。() A. 电动汽油泵的电刷接触不良 B. 回油管堵塞 C. 汽油压力调节器密封不严 D. 以上都正确 7、对喷油量起决定性作用的是( )。 A. 空气流量计 B. 水温传感器 C. 氧传感器 D. 节气门位置传感器 8、负温度系数的热敏电阻其阻值随温度的升高而( )。 A. 升高 B. 降低 C. 不受影响 D. 先高后低 9、属于质量流量型的空气流量计是()。 A. 叶片式空气流量计 B. 热膜式空气流量计 C. 进气歧管压力传感器 10、空气流量计常用于检测:()
A. 进气质量 B. 进气效率 C. 进气密度 11、当结构确定后,电磁喷油器的喷油量主要决定于()。 A. 喷油脉宽 B. 点火提前角 C. 工作温度 12、废气再循环的作用是抑制( )的产生。 A. HC B. CO C. NOx D.有害气体 13、进入进气歧管的废气量一般控制在( )范围内。 A. 1%~2% B. 2%~5% C. 5%~10% D. 6%~13% 14、在( )时废气再循环控制系统不工作。 A. 行驶 B. 怠速 C. 高转速 D. 热车 15、采用三元催化转换器必须安装( )。 A. 前氧传感器 B. 后氧传感器 C. 前、后氧传感器 16、如果三元催化转换器良好,后氧传感器信号波动( )。 A. 频率高 B. 增加 C. 没有 D. 缓慢 17、发动机过热将使( )。 A. EGR系统工作不良 B. 燃油蒸发量急剧增多 C. 三元催化转换器易损坏 D. 曲轴箱窜气增加 18、进气惯性增压系统通过改变( )达到进气增压效果。 A. 进气通道截面积 B. 压力波传播路线长度 C. 废气流动路线 D. 进气管长度 19、氧化锆只有在()以上的温度时才能正常工作。 A. 90℃ B. 40℃ C. 815℃ D. 500℃ 20、在暖机过程中,ECU根据()按内存的控制性控制控制阀的开度. A. 进气温度 B. 节气门开度 C .冷却液温度 D. 凸轮轴位置
最新国家开放大学电大地域文化教学考一体化网考形考作业试题及答案(更新版) 100%通过 2015年秋期电大把《地域文化》纳入到“教学考一体化”平台进行网考,针对这个平台,本人汇总了该科所有的题,形成一个完整的题库,内容包含了单选题、多选题、判断题,并且以后会不断更新,对考生的复习、作业和考试起着非常重要的作用,会给您节省大量的时间。做考题时,利用本文档中的查找工具,把考题中的关键字输到查找工具的查找内容框内,就可迅速查找到该题答案。本文库还有其他教学考一体化答案,敬请查看。 一、单选题 1. 首创“飞白书”体的书法家是(1.00分) A. 褚遂良 B. 蔡邕 C. 锺繇 D. 刘德昇 2.《杂体诗》30首的作者是(1.00分) A. 谢朓 B. 谢灵运 C. 江淹 D. 庾信 3.《贞观政要》的作者是(1.00分) A. 魏徵 B. 吴兢 C. 岑文本 D. 姚崇 4.被称为“北方书圣”的书法家是(1.00分) A. 褚遂良 B. 郑道昭 C. 锺繇 D. 孙过庭 5.被南阳人称为“召父”的召信臣所属的朝代是(1.00分) A. 唐朝 B. 西汉 C. 隋朝 D. 东汉 6.被后人称为“商圣”的是(1.00分) A. 张衡 B. 张仲景 C. 范蠡 D. 吴道子 7.书法理论著作《九势》作者是(1.00分) A. 锺繇 B. 蔡邕 C. 蔡文姬 D. 刘德昇 8.《祭十二郎文》的作者(1.00分) A. 白居易 B. 元稹 C. 韩愈 D. 元结 9.散文成就居“唐宋八大家”之首的作家是(1.00分) A. 杜甫 B. 白居易 C. 韩愈 D. 李商隐 10.《壮悔堂集》的作者是(1.00分) A. 史可法 B. 侯方域 C. 彭而述 D. 王铎 11.《驴山公九锡文》的作者是(1.00分) A. 范缜 B. 谢灵运 C. 袁淑 D. 谢朓 12.《治安策》的作者是(1.00分) A. 韩非子 B. 李斯 C. 蔡邕 D. 贾谊 13.山水画论《林泉高致》的作者是(1.00分) A. 郭熙 B. 李迪 C. 李唐 D. 吴道子 14.被后人称为“科圣”的是(1.00分) A. 郑国 B. 李诫 C. 褚少孙 D. 张衡