2018年高考英语试题高考新课标Ⅰ试题及答案解析

2018年高考英语试题高考新课标Ⅰ试题及答案解析英语

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What will James do tomorrow?

A. Watch a TV program.

B. Give a talk.

C. Write a report.

2. What can we say about the woman?

A. She’s gener ous.

B. She’s curious.

C. She’s helpful.

3. When does the train leave?

A. At 6:30.

B. At 8:30.

C. At 10:30

4. How does the woman go to work?

A. By car

B. On foot

C. By bike.

5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Classmates.

B. Teacher and student.

C. Doctor and patient.

第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟,听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答第6、7题

6. What does the woman regret?

A. Giving up her research.

B. Dropping out of college.

C. Changing her major.

7. What is the woman interested in studying now?

A. Ecology.

B. Education.

C. Chemistry

听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。

8. What is the man?

A. A hotel manager.

B. A tour guide.

C. A taxi driver.

9. What is the man doing for the woman?

A. Looking for some local foods.

B. Showing her around the seaside.

C. Offering information about a hotel.

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

10. Where does the conversation probably take place?

A. In an office.

B. At home.

C. At a restaurant.

11. What will the speakers do tomorrow evening?

A. Go to a concert.

B. Visit a friend.

C. Work extra hours.

12. Who is Alice going to call?

A. Mike.

B. Joan.

C. Catherine.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

13. Why does the woman meet the man?

A. To look at an apartment.

B. To deliver some furniture.

C. To have a meal together.

14. What does the woman like about the carpet?

A. Its color.

B. Its design.

C. Its quality.

15. What does the man say about the kitchen?

A. It’s a good size.

B. It’s newly painted.

C. It’s adequately equipped.

16. What will the woman probably do next?

A. Go downtown.

B. Talk with her friend.

C. Make payment.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. Who is the speaker probably talking to?

A. Movie fans.

B. News reporters.

C. College students.

18. When did the speaker take English classes?

A. Before he left his hometown.

B. After he came to America.

C. When he was 15 years old.

19. How does the speaker feel about his teacher?

A. He’s proud.

B. He’s sympathetic.

C. He’s grateful.

20. What does the speaker mainly talk about?

A. How education shaped his life.

B. How his language skills improved.

C. How he managed his business well.

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

Washington, D.C. Bicycle Tours

Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

Duration: 3 hours

This small group bike tour is a fantastic way to see the world-famous cherry trees with beautiful flowers of Washington, D.C. Your guide will provide a history lesson about the trees and the famous monuments where they blossom. Reserve your spot before availability — and the cherry blossoms — disappear! Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour

Duration: 3 hours (4 miles)

Join a guided bike tour and view some of the most popular monuments in Washington, D.C. Explore the monuments and memorials on the National Mail as your guide shares unique facts and history at each stop. Guided tour includes bike, helmet, cookies and bottled water.

Capital City Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

Duration: 3 hours

Morning or Afternoon, this bike tour is the perfect tour for D.C. newcomers and locals looking to experience Washington, D.C. in a healthy way with minimum effort. Knowledgeable guides will entertain you with the most interesting stories about Presidents, Congress, memorials, and parks. Comfortable bikes and a smooth

tour route (路线) make cycling between the sites fun and relaxing.

Washington Capital Sites at Night Bicycle Tour

Duration: 3 hours (7 miles)

Join a small group bike tour for an evening of exploration in the heart of Washington, D.C. Get up close to the monuments and memorials as you bike the sites of Capitol Hill and the National Mall. Frequent stops are made for photo taking as your guide offers unique facts and history. Tour includes bike, helmet, and bottled water. All riders are equipped with reflective vests and safety lights.

21. Which tour do you need to book in advance?

A. Cherry Blossom Bike Tour in Washington, D.C.

B. Washington Capital Monuments Bicycle Tour.

C. Capital City Bike Tour in Washington,

D.C.

D. Washington Capital Sites at Night Bike Tour.

22. What will you do on the Capital City Bike Tour?

A. Meet famous people.

B. Go to a national park.

C. Visit well-known museums.

D. Enjoy interesting stories.

23. Which of the following does the bicycle tour at night provide?

A. City maps.

B. Cameras.

C. Meals.

D. Safety lights.

B

Good Morning Britain’s Susanna Reid is used to grilling guests on the sofa every morning, but she is cooking up a storm in her latest role - showing families how to prepare delicious and nutritious meals on a tight budget.

In Save Money: Good Food, she visits a different home each week and with the help of chef Matt Tebbutt offers top tips on how to reduce food waste, while preparing recipes for under ￡5 per family a day. And the Good Morning Britain presenter says she's been able to put a lot of what she's learnt into practice in her own home, preparing meals for sons, Sam, I4, Finn, 13, and Jack, 11 We love Mexican churros, so I buy them on my phone from my local Mexican takeaway restaurant," she explains. “I pay ￡5 is for a portion(一份), but Matt makes them for 26p a portion, because they are flour, water, sugar and oil. Everybody can buy takeaway food, but sometimes we're not aware how cheaply we

can make this food ourselves.”

The eight-part series (系列节目),Save Money: Good Food, follows in the footsteps of ITV's Save Money: Good Health, which gave viewers advice on how to get value from the vast range of health products on the market.

With food our biggest weekly household expenses, Susanna and Matt spend time wit h a different family each week. In tonight’s Easter special, they come to the aid of a family in need of some delicious inspiration on a budget. The team transforms the family’s long weekend of celebration with less expensive but still tasty recipes.

24. What do we know about Susanna Reid?

A. She enjoys embarrassing her guests.

B. She has started a new programme.

C. She dislikes working early in the morning.

D. She has had a tight budget for her family.

25. How does Matt Tebbutt help Susanna?

A. He buys cooking materials for her.

B. He prepares food for her kids.

C. He assists her in cooking matters.

D. He invites guest families for her.

26. What does the author intend to do in paragraph4?

A. Summarize the previous paragraphs.

B. Provide some advice for the readers.

C. Add some background information.

D. Introduce a new topic for the discussion.

27. What can be a suitable title for the text?

A. Keeping Fit by Eating Smart

B. Balancing Our Daily Diet

C. Making Yourself a Perfect Chef

D. Cooking Well for Less

C

Languages have been coming and going for thousands of years, but in recent times there has been less coming and a lot more going. When the world was sill populated by hunter-gatherers, small tightly knit (联系) groups developed their own patterns of speech independent of each other. Some language experts believe that 10,000 years ago, when the world had just five to ten million people, they

spoke perhaps 12,000 languages between them.

Soon afterwards, many of those people started settling down to become farmers, and their languages too became more settled and fewer in number. In recent centuries, trade, industrialisation, the development of the nation-state and the spread of universal compulsory education, especially globalisation and better communications in the past few decades, all have caused many languages to disappear, and dominant languages such as English, Spanish and Chinese are increasingly taking over.

At present, the world has about 6,800 languages. The distribution of these languages is hugely uneven. The general rule is that mild zones have relatively few languages, often spoken by many people, while hot, wet zones have lots, often spoken by small numbers. Europe has only around 200 languages; the Americas about 1,000; Africa 2,400; and Asia and the Pacific perhaps 3,200, of which Papua New Guinea alone accounts for well over 800. The median number (中位数) of speakers is a mere 6000, which means that half the world's languages are spoken by fewer people than that.

Already well over 400 of the total of 6,800 languages are close to extinction (消亡), with only a few elderly speakers left. Pick, at random, Busuu in Cameroon (eight remaining speakers), Chiapaneco in Mexico (150), Lipan Apache in the United States (two or three) or Wadjigu in Australia (one, with a question-mark): none of these seems to have much chance of survival.

28. What can we infer about languages in hunter-gatherer times?

A. They developed very fast.

B. They were large in number.

C. They had similar patterns.

D. They were closely connected.

29. Which of the following best explains “dominant” underlined in parag raph 2?

A. Complex.

B. Advanced.

C. Powerful.

D. Modern.

30. How many languages are spoken by less than 6,000 people at present?

A. About 6,800

B. About 3,400

C. About 2,400

D. About 1,200

31. What is the main idea of the text?

A. New languages will be created.

B. People’s lifestyles are reflected in fewer languages.

C. Human development results in fewer languages.

D. Geography determines language evolution.

D

We may think we’re a culture that gets rid of our worn techno logy at the first sight of something shiny and new, but a new study shows that we keep using our old devices（装置）well after they go out of style. That’s bad news for the environment –and our wallets –as these outdated devices consume much more energy than the news ones that do the same things.

To figure out how much power these devices are using, Callie Babbitt and her colleagues at the Rochester Institute of Technology in New York tracked the environmental costs for each product throughout its life – from when its minerals are mined to when we stop using the device. This method provided a readout for how home energy use has evolved since the early 1990s. Devices were grouped by generation. Desktop computers, basic mobile phones, and box-set TVs defined 1992. Digital cameras arrived on the scene in 1997. And MP3 players, smart phones, and LCD TVs entered homes in 2002, before tablets and e-readers showed up in 2007.

As we accumulated more devices, however, we didn't throw out our old ones. “The living-room television is replaced and gets planted in the kids’ room, and suddenly one day, you have a TV in every room of the house,” said one researcher. The average number of electronic devices rose from four per household in 1992 to 13 in 2007. We’re not just kee ping these old devices – we continue to use them. According to the analysis of Babbitt’s team, old desktop monitors and box TVs with cathode ray tubes are the worst devices with their energy consumption and contribution to greenhouse gas emissions (排放) more than doubling during the 1992 to 2007 window.

So what’s the solution (解决方案)? The team's date only went up to 2007, but the researchers also explored what would happen if consumers replaced old products with new electronics that serve more than one function, such as a tablet for word processing and TV viewing. They found that more on-demand

environment viewing on tablets instead of TVs and desktop computers could cut energy consumption by 44%.

32. What does the author think of new devices?

A. They are environment-friendly.

B. They are no better than the old.

C. They cost more to use at home.

D. They go out of style quickly.

33. Why did Babbitt’s team conduct the research?

A. To reduce the cost of minerals.

B. To test the life cycle of a product.

C. To update consumers on new technology.

D. To find out electricity consumption of the devices.

34. Which of the following uses the least energy?

A. The box-set TV.

B. The tablet.

C. The LCD TV.

D. The desktop computer.

35. What does the text suggest people do about old electronic devices?

A. Stop using them.

B. Take them apart.

C. Upgrade them.

D. Recycle them.

第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)

根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Color is fundamental in home design –something you’ll always have in every room. A grasp of how to manage color in your spaces is one of the first steps to creating rooms you’ll love to live in. Do you want a room that’s full of life? Professional? Or are you just looking for a place to relax after a long day?

36 , color is the key to make a room feel the way you want it to feel.

Over the years, there have been a number of different techniques to help designers approach this important point. 37 , they can get a little complex. But good news is that there’re really only three kinds of decisions you need to make about color in your home: the small ones, the medium ones, and the large ones.

38 . They’re the little spots of color like throw pillows, mirrors and baskets that most of us used to add visual interest to our rooms. Less tiring than painting your walls and less expensive than buying a colorful sofa, small color choices bring with them the significant benefit of being easily changeable.

Medium color choices are generally furniture pieces such as sofa, dinner tables or bookshelves. 39 . They require a bigger commitment than smaller ones, and they have a more powerful effect on the feeling of a space.

The large color decisions in your rooms concern the walls, ceilings, and floors. Whether you’re looking at wallpaper or paint, the time, effort and relative expense put into it are significant. 40 .

A. While all of them are useful

B. Whatever you’re looking for

C. If you’re experimenting with a color

D. Small color choices are the ones we’re most familiar with

E. It’s not really a good idea to use too many small color pieces

F. So it pays to be sure, because you want to get it right the first time

G. Color choices in this range are a step up from the small ones in two major ways

第三部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面的短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

During my second year at the city college, I was told that the education department was offering a “free” course, called Thinking Chess, for three credits. I __41__ the idea of taking the class because, after all, who doesn’t want to ___42___ a few dollars? More than that, I’d always wanted to learn chess. And, even if I weren’t __43__ enough about free credits, news about our__44__was appealing enough to me. He was an international grandmaster, which __45__I wound be learning from one of the game’s __46__. I could hardly wa it to __47__him.

Maurice Ashley was kind and smart, a former graduate returning to teach, and this __48__was no game for him: he meant business. In his introduction, he made it __49__that our credits would be hard-earned. In order to __50__ the class, among

other criteria, we had to write a paper on how we plan to __51__ what we would learn in class to our future professions and, __52__, to our lives. I managed to get an A in that __53__ and learned life lessons that have served me well beyond the __54__.

Ten years after my chess class with Ashley, I’m still putting to use what he __55__ me: “The absolute most important __56__ that you learn when you play chess is how to make good __57__. On every single move you have to __58__ a situation, process what your opponent (对手) is doing and __59__ the best move from among all your options.” These words still ring true today in my __60__ as a journalist.

41. A. put forward B. jumped at C. tried out D. turned down

42. A. waste B. earn C. save D. pay

43. A. excited B. worried C. moved D. tired

44. A. title B. competitor C. textbook D. instructor

45. A. urged B. demanded C. held D. meant

46. A. fastest B. easiest C. best D. rarest

47. A. interview B. meet C. challenge D. beat

48. A. chance B. qualification C. honor D. job

49. A. real B. perfect C. clear D. possible

50. A. attend B. pass C. skip D. observe

51. A. add B. expose C. apply D. compare

52. A. eventually B. naturally C. directly D. normally

53. A. game B. presentation C. course D. experiment

54. A. criterion B. classroom C. department D. situation

55. A. taught B. wrote C. questioned D. promised

56. A. fact B. step C. manner D. skill

57. A. grades B. decisions C. impressions D. comments

58. A. analyze B. describe C. rebuild D. control

59. A. announce B. signal C. block D. evaluate

60. A. role B. desire C. concern D. behavior

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)

阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

According to a review of evidence in a medical journal, runners live three years 61 (long) than non-runners. You don’t have to run fast or for long 62 (see) the benefit. You may drink, smoke, be overweight and still reduce your risk of 63 (die) early by running.

While running regularly can’t make you live forever, the review says it 64 (be) more effective at lengthening life 65 walking, cycling or swimming. Two of the authors of the review also made a study published in 2014 66 showed a mere five to 10 minutes a day of running reduced the risk of heart disease and early deaths from all 67 (cause).

The best ex ercise is one that you enjoy and will do. But otherwise …it’s probably running. To avoid knee pain, you can run on soft surfaces, do exercises to 68 (strength) your leg muscles (肌肉), avoid hills and get good running shoes. Running is cheap, easy and it’s always 69 (energy). If you are time poor, you need run for only half the time to get the same benefits as other sports, so perhaps we should all give 70 a try.

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题l分,满分10分)

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线(＼)划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;

2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。

During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They also had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer they earned quite a lot by sell the fish, I felt happily that their life had improved. At the end of

our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed. 第二节书面表达(满分25分)

假如你是李华,你的新西兰朋友Terry将去中国朋友家做客,发邮件向你询问有关习俗,请你回复邮件,内容包括：

1. 到达时间;

2. 合适的礼物;

3. 餐桌礼仪。

注意：

1. 词数100左右

2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。

2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试全国I卷

英语试题参考答案

第一部分听力

1-5 BCCBA 6-10 BABCC 11-15 ABAAC 16-20 BCBCA

第二部分阅读理解

21-25 ADDBC 26-30 CDBCB 31-35 CADBA 36-40 BADGF

第三部分语言知识运用

41-45 BCADD 46-50 CBDCB 51-55 CACBA 56-60 DBADA

61. longer 62. to see 63. dying 64. is 65. than

66. that / which 67. causes 68. strengthen 69. energetic 70. it / running 第四部分写作

第一节

During my last winter holiday, I went to countryside with my father to visit

^

the

my grandparents. I find a big change there. The first time I went there, they were

found

living in a small house with dogs, ducks, and another animals. Last winter when

other

I went here again, they had a big separate house to raise dozens of chicken. They

there chickens

also had a small pond which they raised fish. My grandpa said last summer

^

in 或where

they earned quite a lot by sell the fish. I felt happily that their life had improved. At the

selling happy

end of our trip, I told my father that I planned to return for every two years, but he agreed.

and 第二节（略）

2013年天津高考英语真题(含答案)(校对版)

绝密★启用前 2013年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试（天津卷） 英语 本试卷分第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分，共130分，考试时间100分钟，第Ⅰ卷1页至10页，第Ⅱ卷11页至12页。 第Ⅰ卷 本卷共55小题，共95分 第一部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分） 第一节：单项填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分） 从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 1.---I’m going to Venice next week. ---____________. Carnival will be held then. Have fun! A.You’re crazy B. You’re lucky C. You’d better not D. You never know 2.If you are in trouble, Mike is always willing to ______________a hand. A.lend B. shake C. wave D. want 3.I think watching TV every evening is a waste of time---there are ____________meaningful things to do. A.less B. more C. the least D. the most 4.---Mary’s been offered a job in a university, but she doesn’t want to take it. ---__________? It’s a very good chance. A.Guess what B. So what C. Who cares D. But why 5.____________ small, the company has about 1,000 buyers in over countries. A.As B. If C. Although D. Once 6.We have launched another man-made satellite, _____________is announced in today’s newspaper. A.that B. which C. who D. what 7.While she was in Paris, she developed a ____________for fine art. A.way B. relation C. taste D. habit 8.I had hoped to take a holiday this year but I wasn’t able to ______________. A.get away B.dop in C. check out D. hold on 9.No one ________be more generous; he has a heart of gold. A.could B. must C. dare D. need 10.In some languages, 100 words make up half of all words _________ in daily conversations. https://www.wendangku.net/doc/1c16909704.html,ing B. to use C. having used D. used 11.It was not until near the end of the letter ________she mentioned her own plan. A.that B. where C. why D. when 12.At our factory there are a few machines similar to _____________described in this magazine. A.them B. these C. those D. ones 13.The water supply has been cut off temporarily because the workers ________one of the main pipes. A.had repaired B. have repaired C. repaired D. are repairing 14.If he had spent more time practicing speaking English before, he ________able to speak it much better now. A.will be B. would be C. has been D. would have been 15._________ I want to tell you is the deep love and respect I have for my parents. A.That B. Which C. Whether D. What

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2018年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试 英语 （考试时间：120分钟试卷满分：150分） 注意事项： 1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2. 作答时，务必将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷及草稿纸上无效。 3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）（略） 第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分40分) 第一节(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分) 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。 A Summer Activities Students should read the list with their parents/careers, and select two activities they would like to do. Forms will be available in school and online for them to indicate their choices and return to school. Before choices are finalised, parents/careers will be asked to sign to confirm their child’s choices. 1 / 18

2 / 18

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